Daily GK Update 22nd July 2017

1. Arun Jaitley launches Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana pension scheme with 8% fixed rate

i. Finance Minister Arun Jaitley formally launched Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY), a pension scheme exclusively for senior citizens with 8% fixed rate of interest on their savings.

ii. Under this scheme, there will be an assured return of 8 per cent over a tenure of 10 years. It can be purchased offline as well as online through Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India which has been given the sole privilege to operate this scheme.

Important Takeaways from Above News-

• Present chairman of LIC is V K Sharma.

2. BoB signs MoU with DGS&D for services to govt’s e-marketplace

i. Bank of Baroda has entered into an agreement with Directorate General of Supplies & Disposal (DGS&D) for extending various banking services to Government e-Marketplace (GeM). 

ii. DGS&D has been mandated to set up GeM, an initiative intended to bring greater transparency and efficiency in public procurements.

Important Takeaways from Above News-

• MD and CEO of Bank of Baroda is P. S. Jayakumar.
• Headquarter of Bank of Baroda is in Vadodara.

3. Karamjyoti Dalal wins bronze medal at World Para Athletics

i. India’s Karamjyoti Dalal has won bronze medal at the World Para Athletics Championships 2017 in the discus-throw. In the women’s F55 category of discus-throw, she managed a throw of 19.02 m.

ii. Earlier, Sundar Singh Gurjar had opened India’s account at the 2017 World Para Athletics Championships by winning gold medal in the men’s javelin throw event. Later, Amit Saroha won silver medal in the club throw event in the F-51 category. 

Important Takeaways from Above News-

• The first IPC Athletics World Championships were held in Berlin, Germany in 1994.

4. Kerala to host literary festival with ‘Tolerance’ as theme

i. Kerala will be hosting the fifth edition of South India Writers Ensemble (SIWE) at Chengannur, a town in Kerala’s coastal Alappuzha district from 24 July 2017.

ii. The core theme of the festival this year is ‘tolerance’. So creative writers, journalists, theatre and film personalities from across the industry will be seen deliberating on the theme at a time when the country as a whole is witnessing raging debates over intolerance.

Important Takeaways from Above News-

• Chief Minister of Kerala is Pinarayi Vijayan.
• Governor of Kerala is Palaniswamy Sathasivam.

5. Sanjay Kothari appointed Secretary to new President

i. Sanjay Kothari, Chairman of Public Enterprises Selection Board, has been appointed as Secretary to President-elect Ram Nath Kovind.

ii. Senior journalist Ashok Malik has been named as Press Secretary to Kovind, by the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT). Senior Gujarat-cadre forest service officer Bharat Lal will be Joint Secretary to Kovind.

Important Takeaways from Above News-

• Kovind will be sworn in as the 14th president of India on July 25.

6. MEA spokesperson Gopal Baglay appointed Joint Secretary in PMO

i. Senior diplomat and External Affairs Ministry spokesperson Gopal Baglay appointed as Joint Secretary in the Prime Minister’s Office.

ii. Baglay, a 1992 batch Indian Foreign Service Officer. The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has approved Baglay's appointment to the post for three years.

Important Takeaways from Above News-

• Gopal Baglay has been appointed in place of Vinay Mohan Kwatra, who has been already named as India’s Ambassador to France.

7. Vijay Goel, Nitin Gadkari flag off 10th 'Slum Yuva Daud'

i. Sports Minister Vijay Goel and Road Transport and Highways Minister Nitin Gadkari today flagged off the 10th Slum Yuva Daud at Khichripur in New Delhi. 

ii. The Slum Yuva Daud is a part of the Adopt a Slum campaign of the Sports Ministry and Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan. Thousands of youth from Delhi slums participated in the run which started from Lal Bahadur Shastri Hospital, Khichripur and ended at Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Stadium, Trilokpuri. 

Important Takeaways from Above News-

• Chief Minister of Delhi is Arvind Kejriwal.

8. Partnership with PNB MetLife to provide insurance cover for borrowers

i. Karnataka Bank, in association with its PNB MetLife, has launched Met Loan and Life Suraksha (MLLS), a single premium plan covering the loan liability of a customer.

ii. The bank has also introduced KBL MLLS, an app for its employees to instantly calculate the insurance cover and premium based on loan liability of the borrowers.

Important Takeaways from Above News-

• MD and CEO of Karnataka Bank Mahabaleshwara M.S.
• Sameer Bansal is the Director of PNB MetLife.

9. SBI and Carlyle to jointly acquire GE Capital's stake in SBI Card

i. State Bank of India (SBI), the Carlyle Group and GE have announced that they have signed definitive agreements, whereby SBI and Carlyle Group will acquire GE Capital's entire stake in SBI Card, the second-largest credit card franchise in India.

ii. SBI Card is operated through two joint venture companies , SBI Cards & Payment Services and GE Capital Business Process Management Services, which issue credit cards and process card transactions in the Indian market. Following the transactions, SBI and Carlyle will own 74 percent and 26 percent respectively in each of the two entities.

Important Takeaways from Above News-

• Chairman of SBI is Arundhati Bhattacharya.
• Headquarter of SBI is in Mumbai.

IBPS RRB Officer Scale I, II & III Exam Pattern

IBPS RRB Officer Scale I, II & III Exam Pattern: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts Online Common Written Examination (CWE) for recruitment in Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). The structure of Online examination for Officer Scale I, II & III positions is mentioned below….

IBPS RRB Online Exam Pattern Details: CWE comprises of 5 tests with 200 questions and 200 marks. The marks alotted for each test and related details have been given below…

Preliminary  Examination:

Officer Scale-I:

Sr No.	Name of Test (Objective)	Medium of Exam	No.of Questions	Maximum Marks	Duration
1	Reasoning	Hindi/English	40	40	Composite Time of 45 minutes
2	Quantitative Aptitude	Hindi/English	40	40
	Total		80	80

Main Examination (objective):

Officer Scale-I

Sr No.	Name of Test	Medium of Exam	No.of Questions	Maximum Marks	Total Time
1	Reasoning	Hindi/English	40	50	Composite Time of 2 hours
2	Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation	Hindi/English	40	50
3	General Awareness	Hindi/English	40	40
4 a	English Language	English	40	40
4 b	Hindi Language	Hindi	40	40
5	Computer Knowledge	Hindi/English	40	20
	Total		200	200

Single level Examination (objective)

Officer Scale-II (General Banking Officer):

Sr No.	Name of Test (Objective)	Medium of Exam	No.of Questions	Maximum Marks	Total Time
1	Reasoning	Hindi/English	40	50	Composite Time of 2 hours
2	Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation	Hindi/English	40	50
3	Financial Awareness	Hindi/English	40	40
4 a	English Language	English	40	40
4 b	Hindi Language	Hindi	40	40
5	Computer Knowledge	Hindi/English	40	20
	Total		240	200

Officer Scale-II (Specialist Cadre):

Sr No.	Name of Test (Objective)	Medium of Exam	No.of Questions	Maximum Marks	Total Time
1	Reasoning	Hindi/English	40	40	Composite Time of 2 hours and 30 minutes
2	Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation	Hindi/English	40	40
3	Financial Awareness	Hindi/English	40	40
4 a	English Language	English	40	20
4 b	Hindi Language	Hindi	40	20
5	Computer Knowledge	Hindi/English	40	20
6	Professional Knowledge	Hindi/English	40	40
	Total		240	200

Officer Scale- III:

Sr No.	Name of Test (Objective)	Medium of Exam	No.of Questions	Maximum Marks	Total Time
1	Reasoning	Hindi/English	40	50	Composite Time of 2 hours
2	Quantitative Aptitude & Data Interpretation	Hindi/English	40	50
3	Financial Awareness	Hindi/English	40	40
4 a	English Language	English	40	40
4 b	Hindi Language	Hindi	40	40
5	Computer Knowledge	Hindi/English	40	20
	Total		200	200

Note: 

1. There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks from the marks allotted for that particular question

2. Cutoff marks will be decided on the basis of Average

3. CWE Score will be available on IBPS Website.

4. Score card will be valid for one year from the date of issuing it.

5. CWE would be conducted at many centres as given in the notification.

6. Pre examination training will be provided for limited number of candidates for which online application has to be made.

Common Interview: Candidates who will qualify Online examination will subsequently called for a Common Interview conducted by the Nodal Regional Rural Bank in each State/ UT, coordinated by IBPS. The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks/ scores in interview and within it for local language proficiency will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ ST candidates). The minimum qualifying marks in interview for Officer Scale II & III will also be not less than 40% for all the candidates except 35% for SC/ ST candidates. The relative weightage (ratio) of CWE and interview will be 70:30 respectively. Candidates should qualify both in the CWE and interview and be sufficiently high in the merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process.

Click here for IBPS RRB Officers Eligibility Criteria

IBPS RRB Office Assistant Exam Pattern

IBPS RRB Office Assistant Exam Pattern: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts Online Common Written Examination (CWE) for recruitment in Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). The CWE pattern for Office Assistant (Multipurpose) positions is mentioned below….

IBPS RRB CWE Pattern Details: CWE comprises of 2 tests with 200 questions and 200 marks. The marks alotted for each test and related details have been given below…

Online Common Written Examination:

Office Assistant (Multipurpose):

1. Preliminary Examination (objective):

Sr No.	Name of Test (Objective)	Medium of Exam	No.of Questions	Maximum Marks	Duration
1	Reasoning	Hindi/English	40	40	Composite time of 45 minutes
2	Numerical Ability	Hindi/English	40	40
	Total		80	80

2. Main Examination (objective):

Sr No.	Name of Test (Objective)	Medium of Exam	No.of Questions	Maximum Marks	Total Time
1	Reasoning	Hindi/English	40	50	Composite Time of 2 hours
2	Numerical Ability	Hindi/English	40	50
3	General Awareness	Hindi/English	40	40
4 a	English Language	English	40	40
4 b	Hindi Language	Hindi	40	40
5	Computer Knowledge	Hindi/English	40	20
	Total		200	200

Note: 

1. There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks from the marks allotted for that particular question

2. Cutoff marks will be decided on the basis of Average

3. CWE Score will be available on IBPS Website.

4. Score card will be valid for one year from the date of issuing it.

5. CWE would be conducted at many centres as given in the notification.

6. Pre examination training will be provided for limited number of candidates for which online application has to be made.

Common Interview: Candidates who will qualify Online examination will subsequently called for a Common Interview conducted by the Nodal Regional Rural Bank in each State/ UT, coordinated by IBPS. The total marks allotted for Interview are 100. The minimum qualifying marks/ scores in interview and within it for local language proficiency will not be less than 40% (35% for SC/ ST candidates). The minimum qualifying marks in interview for Officer Scale II & III will also be not less than 40% for all the candidates except 35% for SC/ ST candidates. The relative weightage (ratio) of CWE and interview will be 70:30 respectively. Candidates should qualify both in the CWE and interview and be sufficiently high in the merit to be shortlisted for subsequent provisional allotment process.

Click here for IBPS RRB Office Assistant Eligibility Criteria

IBPS RRB Officers Scale I,II & III Eligibility Criteria

IBPS RRB Officers Scale I,II & III Eligibility Criteria: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) will be conducting Online Common Written Examination for Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). Candidates to gain eligibility to appear for IBPS CWE must satisfy the below given eligibility criteria to apply for Officer vacancies…

1. Nationality: A candidate must be either -
(i) a Citizen of India or
(ii) a subject of Nepal or
(iii) a subject of Bhutan or
(iv) a Tibetan Refugee who came over to India before 1st January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or
(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

2. Age Limit (As on 01-09-2016):
For Officer Scale- III: Above 21 years – Below 40 years i.e. candidates should not have been born earlier than 03-09-1976 and later than 31-08-1995 (both dates inclusive).
For Officer Scale- II: Above 21 years – Below 32 years i.e. candidates should not have been born earlier than 03-09-1984 and later than 31-08-1995 (both dates inclusive).
For Officer Scale- I: Above 18 years – Below 30 years i.e. candidates should not have been born earlier than 03-09-1986 and later than 31-08-1998 (both dates inclusive)

3. Age Relaxation:

Category	Relaxation (in years)
SC/ST	5 years
OBC	3 years
PWD	10 years
In the case of Ex- servicemen commissioned officers, including ECOs/ SSCOs, who have rendered at least 5 years military service and have been released on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within the next one year from the last date for receipt of application) other than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency or on account of physical disability attributable to military service or on invalidment, subject to ceiling as per Government guidelines	5 years
Persons ordinarily domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period 1-1-80 to 31-12-89	5 years
Persons affected by 1984 riots	5 years

4. Educational Qualification:

A. For Officer Scale I: Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or its equivalent and must have proficiency in local language and Computer knowledge or awareness will be an added qualification. Preference will be given to the candidates having degree in Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science, Agricultural Engineering, Pisciculture, Agricultural Marketing and Cooperation, Information Technology, Management, Law, Economics and Accountancy

B.For Officer Scale II (General Banking Officer): Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or its equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate. Preference will be given to the candidates having degree in Banking, Finance, Marketing, Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science, Agricultural Engineering, Pisciculture, Agricultural Marketing and Cooperation, Information Technology, Management, Law, Economics and Accountancy.

Experience: Two years as an officer in a Bank or Financial Institution.

C. For Officer Scale II (Specialist Office):

(i). Information Technology Officer: Degree from a recognised University in Electronics / Communication / Computer Science / Information Technology or its equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate.
Desirable: Certificate in ASP, PHP, C++, Java, VB, VC, OCP etc.
Experience: One year.

(ii). Chartered Accountant: Certified Associate (CA) from Institute of Chartered Accountants of India.
Experience: One year.

(iii). Law Officer: Degree from a recognised University in Law or its equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate.
Experience: Two years as an advocate or should have worked as Law Officer in Banks or Financial Institutions for a period not less than two years.

(iv). Treasury Manager: Certified Associate (CA) from Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or MBA in Finance from a recognized university/ institution.
Experience: One year.

(v). Marketing Officer: MBA in Marketing from a recognized university.
Experience: One year.

(vi). Agricultural Officer: Degree in Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Dairy/ Animal Husbandry/ Forestry/ Veterinary Science/ Agricultural Engineering/ Pisciculture from a recognized university or its equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate.
Experience: Two years.

D. For Officer Scale III: Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or its equivalent with a minimum of 50% marks in aggregate. Preference will be given to the candidates having Degree/ Diploma in Banking, Finance, Marketing, Agriculture, Horticulture, Forestry, Animal Husbandry, Veterinary Science, Agricultural Engineering, Pisciculture, Agricultural Marketing and Co-operation, Information Technology, Management, Law, Economics and Accountancy.
Experience: Minimum 5 years experience as an Officer in a Bank or Financial Institutions.

Note: All educational qualifications should be from a recognised university/ Board.

Language Proficiency - The candidates applying for the posts of Officer Scale I and Office Assistants –(Multipurpose) in any particular RRB or RRBs are required to possess proficiency in the local language of the State / UT in which the RRB is situated to be eligible for interview, as per the notification of the concerned RRB (The condition does not apply for the posts of Officer Scale II and III).

Click here for IBPS RRB Officers Exam pattern

IBPS RRB Office Assistant Eligibility Criteria

IBPS RRB Office Assistant Eligibility Criteria: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) will be conducting Online Common Written Examination (CWE) for Regional Rural Banks (RRBs). Candidates to gain eligibility to appear for IBPS CWE must satisfy the below given eligibility criteria to apply for Office Assistant vacancies…

1. Nationality: A candidate must be either -
(i) a Citizen of India or
(ii) a subject of Nepal or
(iii) a subject of Bhutan or
(iv) a Tibetan Refugee who came over to India before 1st January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or
(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India

2. Age Limit: Candidates age limit should be between 18 years and 28 years i.e. candidates should have not been born earlier than 02-09-1988 and later than 01-09-1998 (both dates inclusive) as on 01-09-2016. Age relaxation is extended as per govt rules.

3. Age Relaxation:

Category	Relaxation (in years)
SC/ST	5 years
OBC	3 years
PWD	10 years
Ex-Servicemen/ Disabled Ex-Servicemen	Actual period of service rendered in the defence forces + 3 years (8 years for Disabled ExServicemen belonging to SC/ST) subject to a maximum age limit of 50 years
Widows, Divorced women and women legally separated from their husbands who have not remarried	9 years

4. Educational Qualification: Candidates applying for the Office Assistant vacancies must have completed Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or its equivalent and Proficiency in local language.

5. Language Proficiency - The candidates applying for the posts of Officer Scale I and Office Assistants –(Multipurpose) in any particular RRB or RRBs are required to possess proficiency in the local language of the State/ UT in which the RRB is situated to be eligible for interview, as per the notification of the concerned RRB (The condition does not apply for the posts of Officer Scale II and III).

Click here for IBPS RRB Office Assistant Exam Pattern

IBPS CRP RRB VI 2017 Notification

IBPS CRP RRB VI 2017 Notification – Apply Online: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has advertised a notification to conduct online examination for the next Common Recruitment Process (CRP) for Regional Rural Banks (RRBs VI) for recruitment of 14192 Group “A”- Officers (Scale-I, II & III) and Group “B”- Office Assistants (Multipurpose) vacancies is tentatively scheduled between September and November 2017 & interviews for recruitment of Group “A”- Officers (Scale-I, II & III) conducted tentatively in the month of December 2017. Eligible candidates can apply online from 24-07-2017 to 14-08-2017. Other details like age limit, educational qualification, selection process, application fee & how to apply are given below…

IBPS Vacancy Details:
Total No.of Posts: 14192
Name of the Posts:
1. Office Assistant (Multipurpose): 7374 Posts
2. Officers Scale I: 4865 Posts
3. Officers Scale II (Agriculture Officer): 169 Posts
4. Officers Scale II (Marketing Officer): 33 Posts
5. Officers Scale II (Treasury Manager): 11 Posts
6. Officers Scale II (Law Officer): 21 Posts
7. Officers Scale II (Chartered Accountant): 34 Posts
8. Officers Scale II (Information Technology Officer): 83 Posts
9. Officers Scale II (General Banking Officer): 1395 Posts
10. Officers Scale III: 207 Posts

Age Limit: Candidates age should be between 18-28 years (candidates should have not been born earlier than 02-07-1989 and later than 01-07-1999 (both dates inclusive) for Office Assistant (Multipurpose), 18-30 years (candidates should not have been born earlier than 03-07-1987 and later than 30-06-1999 (both dates inclusive) for Officer Scale- I, 21-32 years (candidates should not have been born earlier than 03-07-1985 and later than 30-06.-996 (both dates inclusive) for Officer Scale- II, 21-40 years (candidates should not have been born earlier than 03-07-1977 and later than 30-06-1996 (both dates inclusive) for Officer Scale- III as on 01-07-2017. Age relaxation is admissible to 5 years for SC/ ST, 3 years for OBC, 10 years for PWD & for other refer notification.

Educational Qualification: Candidates should possess Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or its equivalent for S.No-1, 2, 9, 10 Posts, Degree in Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Dairy/ Animal Husbandry/ Forestry/ Veterinary Science/ Agricultural Engineering/ Pisciculture for S.No-3, MBA in Marketing from a recognized university for S.No-4, be Charted Accountant or MBA in Finance from a recognized university/ institution for S.No-5, Degree from a recognized University in Law or its equivalent for S.No-6, have Certified Associate (CA) from Institute of Chartered Accountants of India for S.No-7, Degree from a recognized University in Electronics/ Communication/ Computer Science/ Information Technology or its equivalent for S.No- 8 Posts. for more information refer notification.

Selection Process: Candidates will be selected based on Online examination (Preliminary & Main) for Officers Scale I & Office Assistants (Multi-purpose), Common interview for Officers Scale I, single online examination & Common interview for Officers Scale II (Generalist and Specialists) & Scale III.

Application Fee: Applicants required to pay Rs.100/- for SC/ ST/ PWD candidates, Rs. 600/- for all others for Officer (Scale I, II & III), Rs.100/- for SC/ ST/ PWD/ EXSM candidates, Rs. 600/- for all others for Office Assistant (Multipurpose) through online by using Debit Cards (RuPay/ Visa/ Master Card/ Maestro), Credit Cards, Internet Banking, IMPS, Cash Cards/ Mobile Wallets. Bank Transaction charges for Online Payment of application fees/ intimation charges will have to be borne by the candidate.

How to Apply: Eligible candidates can apply online through the website www.ibps.in from 24-07-2017 to 14-08-2017.

Important Dates:

Starting Date for Online Application & Payment of fee	24-07-2017
Last Date for Online Application & Payment of fee	14-08-2017
Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training for Officer Scale-I	August 2017
Conduct of Pre-Exam Training for Officer Scale-I	28-08-2017 to  03-09-2017
Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training for Office Assistant	August 2017
Conduct of Pre-Exam Training for Office Assistant	04-09-2017 to  09-09-2017
Download of call letters for online examination — Preliminary	Officer Scale-I- August 2017 Office Asst — September 2017
Online Examination — Preliminary	Officer Scale-I — 09-09-2017,  10-09-2017 and 16-09-2017  Office Asst- 17, 23 & 24-09-2017
Result of Online exam — Preliminary	Officer Scale-I — October 2017  Office Asst- October 2017
Download of Call letter for Online exam — Main / Single	Officer Scale- I, II & III - October 2017 Office Asst- November 2017
Online Examination — Main / Single	Officers (I, II & III) —  05-11-2017  Office Asst – 12-11-2017
Declaration of Result — Main/ Single (For Officers Scale I, II and III)	November 2017
Download of call letters for interview (For Officers Scale I, II and III)	December 2017
Conduct of interview (For Officers Scale I, II and III)	December 2017
Provisional Allotment (For Officers Scale I, II and III & Office Assistant. (Multipurpose))	January 2018

For more details like vacancy details, age, qualification & other information click on the link given below….

IBPS CRP RRBs VI Notification	More Information
Recruitment Advt	Get Details
Eligibility Details for Office Assistants (Multipurpose)	https://allactivites.blogspot.com/search/label/IBPS
Eligibility Details for Officers (Scale-I, II & III)	https://allactivites.blogspot.com/search/label/IBPS
Exam Pattern for Office Assistants (Multipurpose)	https://allactivites.blogspot.com/search/label/BANK%20JOB%20NOTIFICATIONS
Exam Pattern for Officers (Scale-I, II & III)	https://allactivites.blogspot.com/search/label/IBPS

Reasoning Quiz

Reasoning Quiz

Directions (1-5): Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Seven friends F, H, J, K, L, M and P are working in different cities viz. Chennai, Mumbai, Bangaluru, Jaipur, Indore, Ahmedabad and Hyderabad but not necessarily in the same order.

 Each one of them has a different profession viz. CA, Doctor, Professor, Engineer Banker, Lawyer and Architect not necessarily in the same order.

 H is a lawyer and he works in Jaipur. K is a Doctor and he does not work in Chennai. The CA works in Mumbai. M works in Indore. 

Architect works in Hyderabad. L is a Banker and he works in Bengaluru. F is an Engineer. J does not work in Mumbai.

1.       Who is an architect?

(1) J                                (2) P

(3) K                              (4) L

(5) None of these

2.       Which of the following combinations of person, profession and city is definitely correct?

(1) F – Engineer – Bengaluru

(2) K – Architect – Hyderabad

(3) L – banker – Mumbai

(4) M – Professor – Jaipur

(5) None of these

3.       Who is working in Mumbai?

(1) J                                (2) K

(3) M                             (4) P

(5) None of these

4.       Engineer works in which city?

(1) Ahmedabad                        (2) Chennai

(3) Mumbai                                (4) Bengaluru

(5) None of these

5.       Who is professor?

(1) P                              (2) J

(3) M                             (4) M or J

(5) None of these

6.       Among M, N, 0, P, & Q, (i) N is taller than only P and (ii) 0 is the 2nd tallest person. To decide the tallest among them, 

the data in which of the following statements is (are) sufficient?

(A) M is taller than N.

(B) M, though taller than N, is not as tall as Q.

(C) Q is taller than N.

(D) O is taller than both. M and N

(1) Only (D)

(2) Either (B) or (D)

(3) Only (B) or only (A) and (C) together

(4) (B) and (D) together

(5) None of the above

7.       In the case of how many letters in the word CLIENT, their serial order in the word will not differ than their serial-

           order in the arrangement where the letters of the word are arranged alphabetically?

(1) Four      

(2) One

(3) Three

(4) Two

(5) None of these

8.       In a certain code, 'MUKESH' is written as 'PENOVK’ and ‘STOCK’ as ‘VWAFN’. How is 'KNIGHT' written in that code

(1) NQUJKW

(2) NQAJKW

(3) HKUDEQ

(4) HKADEQ

(5) None of these

9.       How many such pairs of letters are these in the word 'ORTHOPEDIC' each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(1)One

(2)Three

(3)Four

(4)Two

(5) None of these

10.   In a certain code, ‘black' means violet', 'violet means 'green', 'green' means 'white', 'white' means 'yellow', 

        and 'yellow' means 'sky blue', what is the colour of coal?

(1) Black

(2) Green

(3) Violet

(4) White

(5) None of these

Solutions (1-5):

NAME TOWN PROFESSION
F Chennai Engineer
H Jaipur Lawyer
J Hyderabad Architect
K Ahmedabad Doctor
L Bengaluru Banker
M Indore Professor
P Mumbai CA

1. (1)

2. (5)

3. (4)

4. (2)

5. (3)

6. (2)

7. (1);

C L I E N T
C E I L N T

8. (1)

9. (5): Such pairs are DE, OP, EH, OR and DH.

10. (5):

Reasoning Quiz

Reasoning Quiz

Directions (1-5): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it.

 You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statement and.

Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

1. What does 'Pa' mean in the code language?

I. 'Pe Bo Pa' means 'Look at me' and 'Bo Se Pe Ki means 'don't look at him' in that code language.

II. 'Ka Ta Ne Pa' means 'take me and go' and 'Li We Si Pa' means 'either me or you' in that code language

2. How is Seema related to Mangesh?

I. Shalini, the cousin of Mangesh, is the niece of Seema. 

II. Sulekha, Seema's sister, is the wife of Omkar, Mangesh's father.

3. What is Shekhar's rank in the class of 40?

I. Samir, who is 9th from the top in the class is above shailendra by 12 ranks who is below shekhar by 5 ranks.

II. Nilesh, who is between Shekhar and Sudhanshu, is 15th from the bottom.

4. P, Q, R, S and T hold different ranks. Who among them ranks the lowest? 

I. S is two ranks below R, who is not the highest in the rank.

II. P is higher in rank than S but below than Q and T in rank.

5. Who among A, B, C, D and E runs the fastest?

I. B runs faster than E but is not the fastest.

II. C, though does not run as fast as A and B, runs faster than D and E

Directions (6-10): Study the information given below and answer these questions.

(i) P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting along a circle facing the center.

(ii) P is between V and S.

(iii) R, who is 2nd to the right of S, is between Q and U.

(iv) Q is not the neighbour of T.

6. Which of the following is correct statement?

(1) V is between P and S.

(2) S is 2nd to the left of V.

(3) R is third to the left of P.

(4) P is to the immediate left of S.

(5) None of the above.

7. What is the position of T?

(1) Between R and V.

(2) To the immediate left of V.

(3) 2nd to the left of R.

(4) 2nd to the right of P.

(5) None of the above.

8. Who is between R and U?

(1) No one

(2) S

(3) V

(4) Q

(5) None of these

9. Which of the following is wrong statement?

(1) R is to the immediate right of U

(2) Q is to the immediate left of R

(3) T is third to the right of Q

(4) U is 2nd to the left of T

(5) None of the above

10. Which of the following pairs has 2nd member sitting to the immediate right of the first member?

(1) QS 

(2) PV

(3) RU

(4) VT  

(5) None of these

1. (3):
From either of the two statements, ‘Pa’ means ‘me’
2. (2):
From statement II, we can say that Seema is the grandmother of Mangesh.
3. (1):
From statement I,
Samir’s rank is 9th
Shailendra’s rank is 21st.
So, Shekhar’s rank is 16th.
4. (5):
On combining both the statements we can say that S’s rank is the lowest.
5. (4):
Answer cannot be found even after combining statement I and II.

Solutions (6-10):

6. (4)
7. (2)
8. (1)
9. (4)
10. (3)

Reasoning Quiz

Reasoning Quiz - II

DIRECTIONS (1-5): In each of the following questions two/three statements are given and these statements are followed by two conclusions numbered (1) and (2). 

You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. 

Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer:

(1) If only (1) conclusion follows               

(2) If only (2) conclusion follows

(3) If either (1) or (2) follows

(4) If neither (1) nor (2) follows and

(5) If both (1) and (2) follow

1.       Statements: All Pencil are black. All bee are black.

Some Grey are Pencil.

Conclusions: I. At least some grey are black.

II. All bee being grey is a possibility.

For (1-1) 

Statements: All men are males.

No male is a female. All females are beautiful.

2.       Conclusions: I. No beautiful is a men.

II. All males being beautiful is a possibility.

3.       Conclusions: I. No men is a female

II. All men being beautiful is a possibility.

For (14-15):

Statements: Some tab are notebook.

Some notebook are laptop. All laptop are computer.

4.       Conclusions: I. No tab is a computer.

II. At least some computer are tab.

5.        Conclusions: I. Some laptop are tab

II. No computer being tab is a possibility.

Directions (16-20): In each question below, a question is followed by information given in statements. 

You have to decide the information given in which of the following statement is necessary to answer the question.

6.       How many days did Rihana take to complete his assignment work?

I.     Krish correctly remembers that Rihana took more than two days but less than seven days to complete her assignment.

II.    Pavitra correctly remembers that Rihana took more than 5 days but less than 10 days to complete her assignment.

III. Arayan correctly remembers that Rihana completed her assignment within 12 days.

(1)   All I, II & III together            

(2)   Only II                                        

(3)   Only I and II                             

(4)   Only I and III                           

(5)   None of these

7.       Ayana is in which direction with respect to Ritu?

I. Manav is to the south of Ritu and Ayana is to the east of Pihu who is to the north of Manav.

II. Pihu is to the south of Ritu.

III. Pihu is to the west of Tilak.

(1)      Only I

(2)      Only II & III

(3)      All               

(4)      Only I & II

(5)      None of these

8.       How many sisters Ritesh have? Ritesh is a boy.

I. Kavita, the mother of Ritesh, is the only child of Monika. Monika has only two grand children.

II.  Sarvesh, the son-in-law of Monika, has a son and a daughter.

(1)      Only I         

(2)      Only II       

(3)      Both I & II

(4)      Either I or II            

(5)      Neither I nor II

9.       Among A, B, C, D and E sitting in a row, facing east, who its exactly in the middle of the line?

I. D sits third to the left of B. D is an immediate neighbour of both A and E.

II. Two people sit between E and C. C does not sit at either of the extreme ends. A sits second to the right of E.

(1)      Only I         

(2)      Only II                       

(3)      Both I and II            

(4)      Either I or II            

(5)      Neither I nor II

10.   How is 'Sweet' coded in a code language?

I. 'I love sweet chocolate' is written as 'qa la ti mi' and 'she is sweet girl is written as 'ja ra mi ka'.

II. 'Bright and Sweet' is written as 'zi mi na' and 'who is sweet' is written as 'mi yo di'.

(1)   Only I           

(2)   Only II      

(3)   Either I or II alone  

(4)   Neither I nor II        

(5)   Both I & II



Solutions (1-5):
1. (5)

For (2-3):

2. (2)
3. (5)

For (4-5):

4. (3)
5. (2)

Solutions (6-10):
6. (3):
(i) 7 days < 2 days (ii) 10 days < 5 days
from (i) & (ii) we can find the days he took.

7. (4):
only (i) & (ii) are sufficient to answer.

8. (3):
only (i) & (ii)

9. (2)

10. (3)