English Quiz

English Quiz

Directions (1-5): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace-

 the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct?

 If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, then mark (5) as the answer.

1. In attempting to move ahead, we have forsaken our good cultural even practices.
1) our even good cultural practices.
2) even our good cultural practices.
3) our good even cultural practices.
4) good cultural practices even.
5) No correction required


2. Sikkim has emerged as one of the most after sought tourists destinations in the country.
1) tourists destination sought after
2) sought-after tourist destination
3) seeking-after tourists destination
4) sought-after tourist destinations
5) No correction required

3. Uttarakhand has struck by a calamity that the state's Chief Minister has called a 'Himalayan Tsunami'.
I) has been struck
2) had stricken
3) is being struck
4) was being stricking
5) No correction required

4. Edward Snowden, in other words, has informed US and British citizens that they have no privacy who so ever.
1) whoever
2) whomever
3) whatsoever
4) whatever
5) No correction required

5. If you lived in Delhi and read the sports pages regularly, 

you might remember seeing Shikhar Dhawan's -

name emblazoned across headlines for almost a decade now, though never in the main sports page.
I) never over
2) ever at
3) always beside
4) however inside
5) No correction required

Directions (6-10): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in -

the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.

(A) The pressure on land is high and the workers on land also are compelled to go to the city to find a job there.
(B) Today, with the establishment of factories, 

the commodities produced by the village craftsmen cannot compete in quality or price with those produced -

in factories with the result that the village industries suffer a loss and after some time close down.
(C) The joint family system in India flourished in the days of yore when agriculture and trade in the villages were in a sound position.
(D) With the closing down of the village industry the workers move to the city.
(E) Besides the decline of agriculture and trade, there are other causes which induce people to move to the city.
(F) Owing to the inrush of people from the villages to the cities, the Hindu joint family system breaks down.

6. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A
2) B
3) D
4) C
5) F

7. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) E
2) B
3) D
4) C
5) A

8. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) C
2) A
3) B
4) E
5) D

9. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
1) E
2) F
3) B
4) A
5) C

10. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) D
2) E
3) A
4) C
5) B


1. 2
2. 4
3. 1
4. 1
5. 3
6. 4
7. 2
8. 5
9. 2
10. 3

English Quiz

English Quiz

Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. 

Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Financial Inclusion (FI) is an emerging priority for banks that have nowhere else to go to achieve business growth.

 The viability of FI business is under question, because while banks and their delivery partners continue to make investments, they haven't seen commensurate returns.

 In markets like India, most programmes are focused on customer on-boarding, an expensive process which people often find difficult to afford,

 involving issuance of smart cards to the customers. However, large-scale customer acquisition hasn't translated into large-scale business,

 with many accounts lying dormant and therefore yielding no return on the bank's investment. For the same reason, Business Correspondent Agents,

 who constitute the primary channel for financial inclusion, are unable to pursue their activity as a full-time job.

 One major reason for this state of events is that the customer on-boarding process is often delayed after the submission of documents 

(required to validate the details of the concerned applicant) by the applicant and might take as long as two weeks. 

By this time the initial enthusiasm of applicants fades away. Moreover, the delivery partners don't have the knowledge and skill to propose anything -

other than the most basic financial products to the customer and hence do not serve their banks"' goal of expanding the offering in unbanked markets.


Contrary to popular perception, the inclusion segment is not a singular impoverished, 

undifferentiated mass and it is important to navigate its diversity to identify the right target customers for various programmes.

 Rural markets do have their share of rich people who do not use banking services simply because they are inconvenient to access or have low perceived value.

 At  the same time, urban markets, despite a high branch density, have multitude of low wage earners outside the financial net. 

Moreover, the branch timings of banks rarely coincide with the off-work hours of the labour class.

Creating affordability is crucial in tapping the unbanked market. No doubt pricing is a tool,

 but banks also need to be innovative in right-sizing their proposition to convince customers that they can derive big value even from small amounts. 

One way of doing this is to show the target audience that a bank account is actually a lifestyle enabler, a convenient and safe means to send money to family or make a variety of purchases.

 Once banks succeed in hooking customers with this value proposition they must sustain their interest by introducing a simple and intuitive user application, 

ubiquitous access over mobile and other touch points, and adopting a banking mechanism which is not only secure but also reassuring to the customer. 

Technology is the most important element of financial inclusion strategy and an enabler of all others. The choice of technology is therefore a crucial decision,

 which could make or mar the agenda. Of the various section criteria, cost is perhaps the most important. This certainly does not mean buying the cheapest package, 

but rather choosing that solution which by scaling transactions to huge volumes reduces per unit operating cost. 

An optimal mix of these strategies would no doubt offer an innovative means of expansion in the unbanked market.

1. Which of the following facts is true as per the passage?
(1) People from rural areas have high perceived value of banking services.
(2) Cost is not a valid criterion for technological pack selection for financial-inclusion initiatives.
(3) The inclusion segment is a singular impoverished_ undifferentiated mass.
(4) The branch timings of banks generally do not coincide with the off-work hours of the labour class in urban markets
(5) All the given statements are true

2. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons do the delivery partners fail to serve their bank-‘s goal to expand in the unbanked markets?
(A) They do not have adequate client base to sell they financial products.
(B) They do not have adequate knowledge and skills explain anything beyond basic financial products to the customers.
(C) They do not have the skills to operate advanced technological aids that are a prerequisite to tap the unbanked-market.

1) Only (B)
2) Only (C)
3)All (A), (B) & (C)
4) Only (A)
5) Both (B) and (C)

3. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons is the viability of financial inclusion under question?
(1) Banks always prefer the cheapest package (to cut cost) while making a choice of technology to be used.
(2) The Business Correspondent Agents are highly demotivated to pursue their activity as a full-time job.
(3) The investments made by banks and their delivery partners are not yielding equal amounts of returns.
(4) Banks do not have adequate number of delivery partners required to tap the unbanked market.
(5) Banks do not have adequate manpower to explore the diversity of the unbanked market and thereby identify the right target customers for various programs.

4. In the passage, the author has specified which of the following characteristics of the customer on-boarding process?
(1) It involves collection of documents from the applicants in order to validate their details.
(2) It involves issuance of smart cards to the customers.
(3) It suffers from latency as it takes a long time after submission of documents by the customer
(4) It is an expensive process which people find difficult to afford.
(5) All of the given characteristics have been specified

5. What did the author try to highlight in the passage?
(A) The ailing condition of financial inclusion business at present
(B) Strategies that may help banks expand in the unbanked market
(C) Role of government in modifying the existing financial-inclusion policies
(1) Both A & B
2) All A, B, & C
(3) only C     
(4)Only A
(5) Only B

6. According to the passage, which of the following ways may help banks sustain the interest of their customers after hooking them?
(A) Adoption of a banking mechanism which is not only secure but reassuring to the customers
(B) Increasing the number of delivery partners in rural market
(C) Introduction of a simple and intuitive user application
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (C)
(3) Only (B)
(4) All (A), (B) and (C)
5) Both (A) and (C)

For Qs(7-8): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

7. Multitude
1) Impoverished 
2) Handful
3) Acknowledged
4) Plenty
5) Solitude

8. Ubiquitous
(1) Quintessential 
(2) Popular
(3) Omnipresent
(4) Simplified
(5) Abnormal

For Qs (9-10): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. Dormant
1) Emaciated
2) Pertinent
3) Cornered
4) Rejected
5) Active

10. Delayed
1) Perturbed       
2) Popularised
3) Expedited
4) Stabilised       
5) Represse



ANSWERS
1. 4
2. 1
3. 3
4. 5
5. 1
6. 5
7. 4
8. 3
9. 5
10. 3

Reasoning Quiz

Reasoning Quiz

1. D said, ‘A’s father is the only brother of my sister’s son’. How is A’s father related to D?

(1) Cousin

(2) Nephew

(3) Aunt

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Directions:The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:

    394   632   783   576   895

2. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged,

 which of the following will be the second highest number?

(1) 632

(2) 783

(3) 576

(4) 895

(5) 394

3. If the first and second digits of each of the numbers are added the resulting sum of which -

of the following numbers will not be exactly divisible by 3?

(1) 895

(2) 394

(3) 576

(4) 632

(5) 783

4. If 2 is added to the last digit of each number and then the positions of the first and the third digits are interchanged, 

which of the following will be the highest number?

(1) 576

(2) 895

(3) 783

(4) 394

(5) 632

5. Q types faster than R but not as fast as V. T types faster than R. S types faster than V. 

Who amongst the five of them types the fastest?

(1) V

(2) T

(3) S

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Directions: In each question below are either two or three statements followed by two conclusions I and II.

 You have to take the two or three given statements to be true and then decide which of the given conclusions-

 logically follows from the two/three given statements, disregarding the commonly known facts. 

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows. 

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows. 

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows. 

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows. 

Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II follow. 

(6-8): 

Statements: 

All buildings are houses

No house is an apartment

All apartments are flats

6. Conclusions: 

No flat is a house

No building is an apartment

7. Conclusions: 

All buildings being flats is a possibility

All apartments being buildings is a possibility

(8-9):

8. Statements: 

Some oceans are seas

All oceans are rivers

No river is a canal

8. Conclusions: 

All rivers can never be oceans

All canals being oceans is a possibility

9. Conclusions: 

No ocean is a canal

At least some seas are rivers

10. Statements: 

No day is night

All nights are noon

No noon is an evening

Conclusions: 

No day is noon

No day is an evening

1. (2)

D’s sister’s son means nephew of D.

A’s father is also nephew of D.

2. (5)

394 => 934; 632 => 362; 783 => 873; 576 => 756; 895 => 985

Second highest number => 934 => 394

3. (1)

3+9=12; 6+3=9; 7+8=15; 5+7=12; 8+9=17

17, is not exactly divisible by 3

4. (1)

394 => 396 => 693

632 => 634 => 436

783 => 785 => 587

576 => 578 => 875

895 => 897 => 798

Highest number => 875 => 576

5. (4)

V > Q > R

T > R and S > V

Now, S > V > Q > R

      ----------

  T

6. (2)

7. (1)

8. (4)

9. (5)

10. (4)

Reasoning Ability

Reasoning Quiz

Directions (1-3): A word and the number arrangement machine -

when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. 

The following is an illustration of input and rear arrangement.

Input: go now 52 38 17 for again 65

Step I: 65 go now 52 38 17 for again

Step II:  65 again go now 52 38 17 for

Step III: 65 again 52 go now 38 17 for

Step IV: 65 again 52 for go now 38 17

Step V: 65 again 52 for 38 go 17 now

As per the rule followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

1. Input: home turf 39 24 86 44 roll over

Which of the following step will be the last?

(1) X

(2) IX

(3) VIII

(4) VII

(5) VI

2. Step II of an Input is:

94 car 86 window shut 52 31 house

Which of the following is definitely the input?

(1) 94 car window 86 shut 52 31 house

(2) 86 window 94 car shut 52 31 house

(3) car shut window 86 52 31 house 94

(4) cannot be determined

(5) None of these

3. Step IV of an input is:

58 box 47 dew 15 21 town pot

Which of the following steps will be the last?

(1) VII

(2) VI

(3) VIII

(4) IX

(5) None of these

Directions (4-8): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are sitting around a circle facing the centre.V is second to left of P and second to right of W.

T is third to the right of Q and is not an immediate neighbour of V.S is third to the right of R.

4. Who is to the immediate left of S?

(1) V

(2) T

(3) Q

(4) W

(5) None of these

5. Who is third to the left of V?

(1) T

(2) S

(3) W

(4) R

(5) None of these

6. In which of the following groups the first person is sitting between the second and third persons?

(1) RPQ

(2) TWS

(3) QPR

(4) QVS

(5) None of these

7. Who is second to the right of Q?

(1) R

(2) W

(3) T

(4) S

(5) None of these

8. Who is to the immediate right of R?

(1) W

(2) T

(3) P

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these 

9. In a certain code ‘PLANT’ is written as  ‘$@2&#’  and ‘YIELD’ is written as ‘!64@%’.

 How is ‘DELAY’ written in that code?

(1) !4&2%

(2) !4@2%

(3) %42@!

(4) %4@2!

(5) None of these

10. How many meaningful English words can be formed with letters ARILT using each letter only once in that word?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

Solutions (1-3):

1. (5)
Input: home turf 39 24 86 44 roll over
Step I: 86 home turf 39 24 44 roll over
Step II: 86 home 44 turf 39 24 roll over
Step III: 86 home 44 over turf 39 24 roll
Step IV: 86 home 44 over 39 turf 24 roll
Step V: 86 home 44 over 39 roll turf 24
Step VI: 86 home 44 over 39 roll 24 turf

2. (4)
From the given step input cannot be determined

3. (2)
Step IV: 58 box 47 dew 15 21 town pot
Step V: 58 box 47 dew 21 15 town pot
Step VI: 58 box 47 dew 21 pot 15 town

Solutions (4-8):

4. (4) W is to immediate left of S

5. (1) T is 3rd to the left of P

6. (5) None

7. (1) R is second to right of Q

8. (2) T is to the immediate right of R

9. (4)
P ------------ $
L-------------@
A-------------2
N-------------&
T-------------#

Y-------------!
I-------------6
E------------4
L------------@
D------------%

Therefore,
D-----------%
E-----------4
L-----------@
A-----------2
Y-----------!

10. (3)
Meaningful words => TRAIL, TRIAL

Data Interpretation,

Directions (1 - 5): Refer to the information given in the graphs below and answer the questions that follow.Number of points earned by six different TV’s 

(Of the total points received assume that the following is the breakup points received due to each of the parameters listed below) 

1.The points obtained by Thomson for durability is equal to which of the following? 
(a) BPL – Flat screen 
(b) Akai – Colour brightness 
(c) LG – Sound system 
(d) Thomson – channels
(e) none of these

2.What is the total number of the points earned by all the TV’s for channels? 
(a) 553.70        
(b) 513. 72 
(c) 490. 42 
(d) 572.70
(e) none of these

3.What are the average points per TV earned for child lock? 
(a) 70. 42 
(b) 76. 36 
(c) 80. 34 
(d) 86.89
(e) none of these

4.The sound system of LG is approximately what per cent of the flat screen of Sony? 
(a) 59% 
(b) 171 %
(c) 52 % 
(d) 64 %
(e) none of these

5.The points earned by Philips for VCD/DVD is what per cent more/ less than the points earned by BPL for colour brightness? 
(a) 22. 84% (more)  
(b) 15. 74% (more) 
(c) 15. 74% (less) 
(d) 22. 84% (less)
(e) none of these

Directions (6-10): The bar graph given below shows the percentage distribution of the total production of a car manufacturing company into various models over two years. 

Percentage of six different types of cars manufactured by a company over two years 

Total number of cars produced in 2010=350000

Total number of cars produced in 2011=440000







6.What was the difference in the number of Q type cars produced in 2010 and the produced in 2011? 
(a) 35500 
(b) 27000 
(c) 22500 
(d) 17500
(e) none of these

7.Total number of cars of models P, Q and T manufactured in 2010 is 
(a) 245000 
(b) 227500 
(c) 210000 
(d) 192500
(e) none of these

8.If the percentage production of P type cars in 2011 was the same as that in 2010, then the number of P type cars production in 2011 would have been? 
(a) 140000 
(b) 132000 
(c) 117000
(d) 105000
(e) none of these

9.If 85% of the S type cars produced in each year were sold by the company, how many S type cars remain unsold? 
(a) 7650 
(b) 9350 
(c) 11850
(d) 12250
(e) none of these

10.For which model the percentage rise/fall in production from 2010 to 2011 was minimum?
(a) Q 
(b) R 
(c) S
(d) T 
(e) none of these



Answers with Explanation

1.(d)  Since percentage contribution of channels and durability are same,

2.(d) Total number of points earned by all the TV’s for channels
= 15% of (683 + 650 + 640 + 625 + 620 + 600)
= 15/100 X 3818 = 572.7

3.(b) Total number of points earned by all the TV’s for child lock = 12% of 3818 = 458.16
Average points = 458.16/6
= 76.36

4.(a) Point of sound system of LG= 10% of 640
= 64
Point of flat screen of Sony  = 16% of 683
= 109. 28
= 110
Required percentage = (64/110)X100
= 59%
5.(c) Points covered by Philips for VCD/DVD
= 14/100 X 650
= 91
Points earned by BPL for Color Brightness
= 18/100 X 600
= 108
Required percentage less
=(108 – 91)/108 X 100
= 15.74%

In 2010: Total number of cars produced = 350000
P = 30% of 350000 = 105000
Q = 15% of 350000 = 52500
R = 20% of 350000 = 70000
S = 10% of 350000 = 35000
T = 15% of 350000 = 52500
U = 10% of 350000 = 35000

In 2011: Total number of cars produced = 440000
P = 40% of 440000 = 176000
Q = 20% of 440000 = 88000
R = 15% of 440000 = 66000
S = 10% of 440000 = 44000
T = 10% of 440000 = 44000
U = 5% of 440000 = 22000

6.(a) Total number of Q type cars produced in 2011 = 88000
Total number of Q type cars produced in 2010 = 52500
Required difference = (88000 – 52500) = 35500

7.(c) Total number of cars of models P, Q and T manufactured in 2010
= (105000 + 52500 + 52500)
= 210000

8.(b) If the percentage production of P type cars in 2011
= Percentage production of P type cars in 2010
= 30%
Then, number of P type cars produced in 2011
= 30% of 440000
= 132000

9.(c) Number of S type cars which remained unsold in 2010 = 15% of 35000 and number of S type cars which remained unsold in 2011 = 15% of 44000
Total number of S type cars which remained unsold
= 15% of (35000 + 44000)
= 15% of 79000
= 11850

10.(b) for model R = (70000 – 66000)/70000 X 100% = 5.71%,

Data Interpretation

1.A man covered a certain distance at some speed. Had he moved 3 kmph faster, he would have taken 40 minutes less. If he had moved 2 kmph slower, he would have taken 40 minutes more. The distance(in km) is:
(1)40km                 
(2)28                   
(3)42 
(4)48                         
(5)none of these

2.A bag contains 6 red and 3 white balls.Four balls are drawn out one by one and not replaced. What  is the probability that they are alternatively of different colours?
(1)4/42     
(2)5/84                             
(3)7/84             
(4)5/42   
(5)none of these

3.What will be the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 10.000 at the rate of 20 p.c.p.a. two years if the interest is compounded half yearly?
(1)Rs.4,400                             
(2)Rs.4,600                     
(3)Rs.4,641
(4)Rs.4,680                             
(5)None of these

4.One card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that the card drawn iS a face card (Jack, Queen and King only)?
(1)1/13       
(2)3/13     
(3)1/4       
(4)9/52     
(5)None of these

5.A monkey tries to ascend a greased pole 14 m high. He ascends 2 m in first  minute and slips 1 min  next alternate minute. If he continues to ascend in this fashion, how long does he take to reach the top?
(1)25                         
(2)24                                   
(3)22
(4)30                           
(5)26

6.Thirty men can do a work in 24 days. In how many days can 20 men do the work , given that timespent  per day is increased by 1/3 of the previous time.
(1)30                     
(2)28                                     
(3)36
(4)27                     
(5none of these

7.The cost price of 20 articles is the same as the selling price of x articles. If the profit is 25%, then value  of x is
(1)15                           
(2)16                                 
(3)18
(4)20                           
(5)none of these
          
8.The percentage profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1920 is equal to the percentage loss incurred by selling the same article for Rs. 1280. At what price should the article be sold to make 25% profit
(1)Rs.2000               
(2)Rs.2200                       
(3)Rs.2400                     
(4)Data inadequate     
(5)none of these

9.A plane left 30 min later from the schedule time & in order to reach the destination 1500 km on time ,it had increase the speed by 250 kmph from the usual speed,its usual speed is
(1)700kmph                 
(2)750kmph                 
(3)250kmph
(4)350kmph                   
(5)500kmph

10.A certain distance is covered at a certain speed.if half of this distance is coveredin double the time,the ratio of the two speed is.
(1)4:1                                 
(2)1:4                                 
(3)1:8
(4)1:6                                 
(5)8:1

Answers With Explanation:

1. (1) Let distance be x kmph and speed y kmph
x/y - x/(y+3) = 40/ 60 ............ (i)
x/(y-2) - x/y = 40/60 .............. (ii)
from eqution (i) & (ii)
y = 12 kmph
x = 40 km
2. (4) Red = 6, White = 3
P(E) = RWRW + WRWR
P(E) = 6/9 * 3/8 * 5/7  * 2/6  + 3/9 * 6/8* 2/7 * 5/6
=  5/42
3. (3)
P = 10,000, R = 10 % , T = 4  years
A = P (1 + r/100)^n
= 10000 (1 + 10/100) ^4
= 10000 (11/10)^4   = 14641
C.I = 14641 - 10, 000 = 4641

4. (2)No. of face cord = 4 * 3 = 12
P (E) = 12/52 = 3/13
5(1)
Distance covered in 2 min = 2-1 = 1 meter
2 min = 1
24 min = 12
in next minute ascend = 2 m
25 minute = 14 meter

6(4)  Let no of days required be x
30 * 24 = 20 * x * (1 + 1/3)
x  = 27 days

7 (2)  Since SP of x = CP of 20
SP/CP = 20/x
profit %  = (20 - x)* 100/x
So,(20 -x)100/x  = 25
x = 16

8(1)CP = (1920 + 1280)/2  = 1600
SP = 1600 * 125/100 = 2000

9(2)  Let usual speed be x kmph
1500/x - 1500/(x + 250) = 1/2
By option
x = 750 kmph

10 (1)Let Distance = D
        Time =  T
S1 = D/T
S2 = (D/2)/(2T)
S1/52 = D/T/(D/2)(2T)
S1 : S2 = 4 : 1