IBPS Clerk Eligibility Details

 IBPS Clerk Eligibility Details: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts Common Written Examination (CWE) for the recruitment of Clerical Cadre vacancies which was approved by public sector banks. The candidates who are attempting the common written exam must have the specified age and necessary educational qualification. The following are the eligibility details…

Eligibility Criteria:

I. Nationality/ Citizenship:
A candidate must be either -
(i) a Citizen of India or
(ii) a subject of Nepal or
(iii) a subject of Bhutan or
(iv) a Tibetan Refugee who came over to India before 1st January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or
(v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

II. Age limit: The minimum age limit is 20 years and maximum 28 years. i.e. a candidate must have been born not earlier than 02-09-1989 and not later than 01-09-1997 (both dates inclusive).

Relaxation of Upper age limit:

Sr. No.	Category	Age relaxation
1	Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe	5 years
2	Other Backward Classes	3 years
3	Persons With Disability	10 years
4	Ex-Servicemen/Disabled Ex-Servicemen	actual period of service rendered in the defence forces + 3 years (8 years for Disabled Ex Servicemen belonging to SC/ST) subject to a maximum age limit of 50 years
5	Widows Divorced women and women legally separated from their husbands who have not remarried	9 years
6	Persons ordinarily domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of Jammu & Kashmir during the period 1-1-80 to 31-12-89	5 years
7	Persons affected by 1984 riots	5 years
8	Regular employees of the Union Carbide Factory, Bhopal retrenched from service (Applicable to Madhya Pradesh state only)	5 years

III. Educational Qualification:

A Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt. Of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government.
The candidate must possess valid Mark-sheet/ Degree Certificate that he/ she is a Graduate on the day he/ she registers and indicate the percentage of marks obtained in Graduation while registering online.
Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/ Diploma/ Degree in computer operations/ Language/ should have studied Computer/ Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/ College/ Institute.

Proficiency in the Official Language of the State/ UT (candidates should know how to read/ write and speak the Official Language of the State/UT) for which vacancies a candidate wishes to apply is preferable. (Some questions may be put at the time of interview to ascertain the candidate’s familiarity with the Official Language of the State/ UT).

Ex-servicemen who do not possess the above civil examination qualifications should be matriculate Ex-servicemen who have obtained the Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding certificate in the Navy or Air Force after having completed not less than 15 years of service in the Armed Forces of the union.

Note: All the educational qualifications mentioned should be from a University/ Institution/ Board recognised by Govt. Of India/ approved by Govt. Regulatory Bodies and the result should have been declared.

IBPS CLERK 2017 – DETAILED STATEWISE VACANCIES

Dear Banking Aspirant,

The most awaited exam of the year after SBI PO and IBPS PO has arrived and the notification has been released and the exam dates of the IBPS Clerk 2017 has been released. IBPS Clerk 2017 has been added to the list of exams in the forthcoming days and we have time in abundant to prepare for the exams, so keep in mind that this is not the same exam as before and work hard to make a place in the final list in the end.

If you haven’t checked the IBPS Clerk 2017 notification, please click the link below to check the notification of the same and also the exam dates of the preliminary and mains examination.

IBPS CLERK 2017 NOTIFICATION & EXAM DATES RELEASED

The number of vacancies for this year IBPS clerk has been lower than the last year and some states have seen a rise in the number of vacancies and some of the states have seen fall in the number of vacancies. Apart from the number of vacancies, even if it is large or meager, one must work hard to grab a spot in the final list, Still IBPS PO 2017  is a month or so from today , concentrate more on these exams, if you are wishing to gain a place in the final list of the IBPS vacancies.

The list of banks which are participating in this year IBPS Clerk 2017 are

• Allahabad Bank
•  Canara Bank
• Indian Overseas Bank
•  UCO Bank
•  Andhra Bank
• Central Bank of India
•  Oriental Bank of Commerce
•  Union Bank of India
• Bank of Baroda
•  Corporation Bank
•  Punjab National Bank
•  United Bank of India
•  Bank of India
•  Dena Bank
•  Punjab & Sind Bank
• Vijaya Bank
• Bank of Maharashtra
•  Indian Bank
•  Syndicate Bank

Note: Out of this VIJAYA BANK, PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK and ORIENTAL BANK OF COMMERCE has not released their vacancies list for all the states which are mentioned as NR in the notification. Have an eye on that, if you are checking the notification. 

State-wise Vacancies of IBPS CLERK 2017 

S.No	STATE	TOTAL NUMBER OF VACANCIES in 2017
1	ANDAMAN & NICOBAR ISLAND	0
2	ANDHRA PRADESH	485
3	ARUNACHAL PRADESH	8
4	ASSAM	109
5	BIHAR	227
6	CHANDIGARH	34
7	CHHATTISGARH	118
8	DADRA & NAGAR HAVELI	7
9	DAMAN & DIU	8
10	DELHI	272
11	GOA	41
12	GUJARAT	487
13	HARYANA	175
14	HIMACHAL PRADESH	73
15	JAMMU & KASHMIR	34
16	JHARKHAND	127
17	KARNATAKA	554
18	KERALA	217
19	LAKSHADWEEP	2
20	MADHYA PRADESH	290
21	MAHARASHTRA	775
22	MANIPUR	11
23	MEGHALAYA	17
24	MIZORAM	3
25	NAGALAND	12
26	ODISHA	196
27	PUDUCHERRY	46
28	PUNJAB	401
29	RAJASTHAN	344
30	SIKKIM	11
31	TAMIL NADU	1277
32	TELANGANA	344
33	TRIPURA	18
34	UTTAR PRADESH	665
35	UTTARAKHAND	78
36	WEST BENGAL	417
	TOTAL NUMBER OF VACANCIES	7883

Note: Out of this VIJAYA BANK, PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK and ORIENTAL BANK OF COMMERCE has not released their vacancies list for all the states which are mentioned as NR in the notification. Have an eye on that, if you are checking the notification. 

IBPS Clerical Cadre Exam Pattern Details

IBPS Clerical Cadre Exam Pattern Details: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts Common Written Examination (CWE) for the recruitment of Clerical Cadre vacancies in public sector Banks. The common written examination pattern details are given below…

Exam Pattern:

Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) conducts this Online Common Written Exam for Clerical Cadre posts. The examination will be two tier i.e. the online examination will be held in two phases, preliminary and main. Total marks of Preliminary exam is 100 in a duration of 1 hour for objective type questions & total marks of Main exam is 200 in a duration of 2 hours for objective type questions. The tests except the Test of English Language will be available bilingually, i.e. English and Hindi.

CWE – Online Examinations: 

1. The structure of the Examinations which will be conducted online are as follows:

a. Preliminary Examination

Sr No	Name of Tests	No. of Qs	Maximum Marks	Duration
1	English Language	30	30	Composite time of 1 hour
2	Numerical Ability	35	35
3	Reasoning Ability	35	35
	Total	100	100

b. Main Examination

Sr. No.	Name of Tests(NOT BY SEQUENCE)	No. of  Questions	Max Marks	Time allotted for each test (Separately timed)
1	General/ Financial Awareness	50	50	35 minutes
2	General English	40	40	35 minutes
3	Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude	50	60	45 minutes
4	Quantitative Aptitude	50	50	45 minutes
	Total	190	200	160 minutes

Scores: The corrected scores obtained by each of the candidates in different sessions (if held) will be normalized using equipercentile method. Penality for Wrong Answers:
There will be penalty for wrong answers marked in the Objective Tests. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate one fourth or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty to arrive at corrected score. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is marked by the candidate; there will be no penalty for that question.

Cutoff Score: Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score in each test and also a minimum total score to be considered to be shortlisted for interview. Depending on number of the State/ UT wise vacancies available, cutoffs will be decided and candidates will be shortlisted for interview. Prior to the completion of the interview process, scores obtained in the online examination will not be shared with the candidates shortlisted for interview.

IBPS CWE Clerk VII 2017 Notification

IBPS CWE Clerk VII 2017 Notification – Apply Online: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) has advertised a notification to conduct online examination (Preliminary and Main) for the next Common Recruitment Process (CRP) for selection of personnel for 7883 Clerical cadre Posts in the Participating Organisations is tentatively scheduled in December 2017 & January 2018. Eligible candidates can apply online from 12-09-2017 to 03-10-2017. Other details like age limit, educational qualification, selection process, application fee & how to apply are given below…

IBPS Vacancy Details:
Total No. of Posts: 7883
Name of the Post: Clerical Cadre (CWE Clerks -VII)
Name of the State:
1. Delhi: 272 Posts
2. Andhra Pradesh: 485 Posts
3. Arunachal Pradesh: 08 Posts
4. Assam: 109 Posts
5. Bihar: 227 Posts
6. Chandigarh: 34 Posts
7. Chhattisgarh: 118 Posts
8. Dadra & Nagar haveli: 07 Posts
9. Daman & Diu: 08 Posts
10. Goa: 41 Posts
11. Gujarat: 487 Posts
12. Haryana: 175 Posts
13. Himachal Pradesh: 73 Posts
14. Jammu & kashmir: 34 Posts
15. Jharkhand: 127 Posts
16. Karnataka: 554 Posts
17. Kerala: 217 Posts
18.Lakshadweep: 02 Posts
19. Madhya pradesh: 290 Posts
20. Maharashtra: 775 Posts
21. Manipur: 11 Posts
22. Meghalaya: 17 Posts
23. Mizoram: 03 Posts
24. Nagaland: 12 Posts
25. Odisha: 196 Posts
26. Puducherry: 46 Posts
27. Punjab: 401 Posts
28. Rajasthan: 344 Posts
29. Sikkim: 11 Posts
30. Tamil Nadu: 1277 Posts
31. Telangana: 344 Posts
32. Tripura: 18 Posts
33. Uttar Pradesh: 665 Posts
34. Uttrakhand: 78 Posts
35. West Bengal: 417 Posts

Age limit: Candidates age limit should be between 20 to 28 years as on 01-09-2017, i.e. a candidate must have been born not earlier than 02-09-1989 and not later than 01-09-1997 (both dates inclusive). Age Relaxation is 05 years for SC/ ST, 03 years for OBC and 10 years for PWD candidates admissible as per rules & other relaxation details refer the notification.

Educational Qualification: Candidate should possess Degree (Graduation) in any discipline from a University recognised by the Govt. Of India or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Government, have valid Mark-sheet/ Degree Certificate that he/ she is a graduateon the day he / she registers and indicate the percentage of marks obtained in Graduation while registering online, with Computer Literacy: Operating and working knowledge in computer systems is mandatory i.e. candidates should have Certificate/Diploma/Degree in computer operations/ Language/ should have studied Computer/ Information Technology as one of the subjects in the High School/ College/ Institute.

Selection Process: Candidates will be selected on the basis of Online Examination (Preliminary and Main).

Note: Proficiency in the Official Language of the State/ UT (candidates should know how to read/ write and speak the Official Language of the State/ UT) for which vacancies a candidate wishes to apply is preferable.

Application Fee: Applicants required to pay Rs.100/- for SC/ ST/ PWD/ EXSM candidates and Rs.600/- for all others through online by using Debit Cards (RuPay/ Visa/ Master Card/ Maestro), Credit Cards, Internet Banking, IMPS, Cash Cards/ Mobile Wallets. Bank Transaction charges for Online Payment of application fees/ intimation charges will have to be borne by the candidate.

How to Apply: Eligible and interested candidates can apply online through IBPS’s website www.ibps.in from 12-09-2017 to 03-10-2017.

Important Dates:

Activity	Tentative Dates
Starting Date for On-line registration including Edit/ Modification of Application by candidates	12-09-2017
Last Date to On-line registration including Edit/ Modification of Application by candidates	03-10-2017
Starting Date for Payment of Application Fees/ Intimation Charges (Online)	12-09-2017
Last Date to Payment of Application Fees/ Intimation Charges (Online)	03-10-2017
Download of call letters for Pre- Exam Training	November 2017
Conduct of Pre-Exam Training	13-11-017 to 18-11-2017
Date for Download of call letters for Online examination — Preliminary	November 2017
Date of Online Examination — Preliminary	02-12-2017, 03-12-2017, 09-12-2017 & 10-12-2017
Date for Result of Online exam — Preliminary	December 2017
Date for Download of Call letter for Online exam — Main	January 2018
Date for Online Examination — Main	21-01-2018
Provisional Allotment	April 2018

For more details pay scale, experience and other information click on the link given below…

IBPS CWE Clerk VII Notification	More Information
Recruitment Advt	Get Details
CWE Clerks-VII Eligibility Details	Get Details
CWE Clerks-VII Selection Process Details	Get Details
CWE Clerks-VI Exam Pattern  Details	Get Details

Quantitative Aptitude

1. The profit earned after selling an article for Rs. 1,754 is the same as loss incurred after selling the article for Rs. 1,492. What is the cost price of the article?
(1) Rs. 1,623
(2) Rs. 1,523
(3) Rs. 1,689
(4) Rs. 1,589
(5) None of these

2. Rubina decide to donate 16% of his monthly salary to an NGO. On the day of donation she changed her mind and donated Rs. 6,567 which was 75% of what she had decide earlier. How much is Rubinan's salary
(1) Rs. 8,756.
(2) Rs. 54,725
(3) Rs. 6,56,700
(4) Rs. 45,696
(5) None of the above

3. A car covers a distance of 816 kms. in 720 minutes. What is the speed of the car in kms./hr.?
(1) 64 km/hr
(2) 62 km/hr
(3) 68 km/hr
(4) 65 km/hr
(5) None of the above 

4. The average of 4 consecutive even numbers A, B, C and D is 99. What is the product of B and D?
(1) 9948
(2) 9800
(3) 9792
(4) 9408
(5) None of the above

5. The difference between 89% of a number and 72% of the same number is 391. What is 48% of that number?
(1) 986
(2) 1098
(3) 1104
(4) 1212
(5) None of the above

6. The ratio of the ages A and B seven years ago was 3 : 4 respectively. The ratio of their ages nine years from now will be 7 : 8 respectively. What is B's age at present?
(1) 16 years
(2) 19 years
(3) 28 years
(4) 23 years
(5) None of these

7. A and B together can complete a particular task in 4 days. If A alone can complete the same task in 12 days, how many days will B take to complete the task if he works alone?
(1) 9 days
(2) 7 days
(3) 5 days
(4) 3 days
(5) None of these

8.A rectangular field has its length and breadth in the ratio 6:5 respectively.A man riding a bicycle,completes one loop of this field along its perimeter at the speed of 19.8 km/hr in 2 minute.what is the area of the field. 
(1)19200 m^2 
(2)27000 m^2  
(3)19300 m^2 
(4)32500 m^2 
(5) None of these

9.What would be the compound interet accured on an amount of Rs 45400 at the end of two years at the rate of 15 Percent per annum ?
(1) 16411.5
(2) 14461.5
(3) 16461.5
(4) 14641.5
(5) None of the above

10.Ravi can swim in a river with a speed of 9 kmph in downstream  and  swim with 5 kmph in upstream. what is the speed of ravi in still water.
(1) 7 kmph
(2) 4 kmph
(3) 6 kmph
(4) 3.5 kmph
(5) None of the above

Answers with Explanation !!!!!!

1. (1); Required CP=1/2(1754+1492)=1623

2. (2); Let Required Salary=x

75% of 16% of x=6567

x=54725

3. (3); Required Speed=816/(720/60)=68 km/hr

4. (5); Given average of A, B, C and D is 99

So, numbers are 96, 98, 100, 102

Required Answer=98X102=9996

5. (3); 89% of x-72% of x=391

17% of x=391

So, 48% of x=(391/17)X48=1104

6. (4); 3 : 4   before 7 years

7 : 8  after 9 years

4=16

1=4 

B's age=16 (before 7 years)

At present=16+7=23

7. (5); (1/4)-(1/12)

=2/12=1/6

i.e. 6 days

8. (2); Perimeter of field=2(6x+5x)=22x

distance travelled by man=19.8X(5/18)X2X60=660 m

22x=660

x=30 m

Area of field=6xX5x=30x^2

=30X30^2 

=27000 m^2 

9. (4)

10. (1); Required, Ravi speed in still water=1/2(9+5)=7 km/hr

Speed of current=1/2(9-5)=2 km/hr

Quantitative Aptitude

Quant Mix Quiz

1.The average of four consecutive even numbers A, B, C and D respectively is 25. What is the product of A & D?

(a) 528

(b) 616

(c) 624

(d) 572

(e) None of the above

2.Subodh got 72 marks in Hindi, 68 marks in Science, 62 marks in Sanskrit, 74 marks in Maths and 64 marks in English. The maximum marks of each subject are 80. How much overall percentage of marks did Subodh get?

(a) 85

(b) 82

(c) 75

(d) 78

(e) None of the above

3.Amla's monthly income is four-fifth of Meera's monthly income Meera's annual income is Rs. 4,29,600. What is Amla's annual income? (In some cases monthly income and in some cases annual income is used.)

(a) Rs. 3,68,240

(b) Rs. 3,43,680

(c) Rs. 3,48,250

(d) RS. 3,66,080

(e) NOne of the above

4. The sum of 45% of a number and 20% of the same number is 4056. What is 85% of that number?

(a) 5043

(b) 5430

(c) 5034

(d) 5340

(e) None of the above

5. At present Satish is four times Madhur's age. After eight years Satish will be 2.5 times Madhur's age then. How many times will Satish's age be  in another eight years time with respect of Madhur's age then?

(a) 5

(b) 3

(c) 2

(d) 1.5

(e) NOne of the above

6. [{(?)^(1.8)}/72]=[24/{(?)^(1.2)}]

(a) 8

(b) 14

(c) 6

(d) 12

(e) NOne of the above

7. The simple interest accrued in 8 years on a principle of Rs. 22,500 is 128 percent of the principle. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?

(a) 14

(b) 18

(c) 16

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) NOne of the above

8. Vishwas sold an item for Rs. 7,200 and incrueed a loss of 20%. At what price should he have sold the item to have gained a profit of 20%?

(a) Rs. 10,800

(b) Rs. 8,950

(c) RS. 11,200

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) NOne of the above

9. The average height of four boys was recorded as 170 cms. If the average of the heights of three boys out of the four was 172 cms., what  was the height of the fourth boy?

(a) 156 cms.

(b) 168 cms.

(c) 170 cms.

(d) 162 cms.

(e) None of the above

10. Out of the fractions 3/5, 7/9, 6/7, 2/3 and 4/11 what is the sum of the largest and smallest fractions?

(a) 1(17/77)

(b) 1(13/65)

(c) 1(13/77)

(d) 1(17/65)

(e) None of the above

Answers

1 (b); Since Average of A, B, C & D=25

so, number are 22, 24, 26, 28

Required Answer=22X28=616

2. (a); Required %=(72+68+62+74+64)/400=85%

3. (b); Amla's monthly income=4/5X429600X1/12

Amla's  Annual income=4/5X429600=343680

4. (e); 45% of x+20% of x=4056

85% of x=(4056/65)X85=5304

5. (c); Let Madhur's age=x

& satish age=4x

4x+8=2.5(x+8)

x=8

AGe of Madhur's age after another 8 years=8+16=24

Age of Satish age after another 8 years=32+16=48

6. (d)x^3 = 1728

x = 12

7. (c)128 = (100X8XR)/100

R = 16

8. (a);CP=7200X(100/80)

SP=7200X(100/80)X(120/100)=10800

9. (e); Required Height=4X170-3X172

=688-516=172

10. (a)

Quantitative Aptitude

Quant Quiz

Directions (Q. 1-10): What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

1. 136% of 105 – 84% of 165 = ?

1) 4.2 

2) 5.7 

3) 6.4 

4) 7.8 

5) 8.6

2. 8/15 of 3/17 of 12/13 of 15470 = ?

1) 1242 

2) 1344 

3) 1464 

4) 1504 

5) 1624

3. 74973 + 56118 – 32756 = 68372 + ?

1) 27853 

2) 28123 

3) 29963 

4) 30107 

5) 31593

4. 1275.42 + 8624.6 – 894.54 – 24.71 = ?

1) 8620.27 

2) 8738.57 

3) 8890.93 

4) 8980.77 

5) 9012.17

5. 84 × ? = 8064 × 2

1) 184 

2) 186 

3) 188 

4) 190 

5) 192

6. sqroot(?) × 48 = 18816 ÷ 7

1) 2704 

2) 2916 

3) 3136 

4) 3364 

5) 3844

7. 165 ÷ 0.005 ÷ 800 = ?

1) 1.625 

2) 16.25 

3) 41.25 

4) 20.625 

5) 10.3125

8. 12.8 × 7.25 × 11.5 = ?

1) 1147.2 

2) 1067.2 

3) 1227.2 

4) 1187.2 

5) 1017.2

9. 22.222 + 2220.2 + 202.20 + 0.0202 – 2.0022 = ?

1) 2244.24 

2) 2442.64 

3) 2424.44 

4) 2444.64 

5) 2224.84

10. 7^3 * √7 * 3√7 * ÷ 7 ÷ 3√(√7) = (7)^?

1) 5/6

2) 5/3

3) 7/6

4) 8/3

5) 7/3

Answers:

1. 1

2. 2

3. 3

4. 4

5. 5

6. 3

7. 3

8. 2

9. 2

10. 4

Quantitative Aptitude

Mensuration (2 D)

1. The length of a rectangular plot is thrice of its breadth. If the area of the rectangular plot is 7803 sq m, what is the breadth of the rectangular plot?

(1) 51 m

(2) 153 m

(3) 104 m

(4) 88 m

(5) None of these

2. Area of a rectangle is 252 cm^2 and its length and the breadth are in the ratio of 9 : 7 respectively. What is its perimeter?

(1) 64 cm

(2) 68 cm

(3) 128 cm

(4) 96 cm

(5) None of these

3. The ratio of the length and the breadth of a rectangular plot is 6 : 5 respectively. If the breadth of the plot is 34 m less than  the length, what is the perimeter of the rectangular plot?

(1) 374 m

(2) 408 m

(3) 814 m

(4) 748 m

(5) None of these

4. The ratio fo length and breadth of a rectangular plot is 8 : 5 respectively. If the breadth is 60 m less than the length, what is the  perimeter of the rectangular plot?

(1) 260 m

(2) 1600 m

(3) 500 m

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

5. Length of a rectangle is twice of its breadth. Area of the rectangle is 18 m^2. What would be its perimeter?

(1) 9 m 

(2) 18 m 

(3) 25 m 

(4) 28 m 

(5) None of these

6. The length of a rectangular floor is twice of its breadth. If Rs. 256 is required to paint the floor at the rate of Rs. 2 per square meters, then what would be the length of floor?

(1) 16 m

(2) 8 m

(3) 12 m

(4) 32 m

(5) 20 m

7. What will be the area (in square metre) of 1.5 m wide garden developed around all the four sides of a rectangular field having  area equal to 300 sq m and breadth equal to three-fourths of the length?

(1) 96

(2) 105

(3) 114

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

8. The perimeter of a square is double the perimeter of a rectangle if the area of rectangle is 240 sq. cm. What is the area of the square?

(1) 100 sq cm

(2) 36 sq cm

(3) 81 sq cm 

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

9. What would be the cost of building a fence around a square plot with area equal to 361 sq ft, if the price per foot of building the fence is Rs. 62?

(1) Rs. 4026

(2) Rs. 4712

(3) Rs. 3948

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

10. What is the area of a circle with circumference equal to 88 cm?

(1) 675 

(2) 650

(3) 416

(4) 516

(5) 616

Answers

1. (1);

Let breadth=x,length=3x

x.3x=7803, x=51

2. (1);

9x.7x=252, x=2

primeter=2(18+14)=64

3.(4);

1=34, 6=204, 5=170

perimeter=2(204+170)=748

4.(5);

8-5=60, 1=20

8=160, 5=100

Perimeter=2(160+100)=520

5. (2);

x.2x=18, x=3

Perimeter=2(3+6)=18

6. (1);

Area=256/2=128

x.2x=128

x=8

Length=2X8=16

7. (3);

Let Length=x and breadth=3/4 x

x.3/4x=300

x=20

Area of garden=(20+3)(15+3) - 300

=144 m^2

8. (4);

9. (2); Length=(361)^1/2=19

Required cost=4X19X62=4712

10.(5); 2 pi. r=88

r=14

Area=pi.r^2

=22/7X14X14=616

Quantitative Aptitude

Quant Quiz

1. The average age of two persons is 46 years. 16 years back the ratio between their ages were 1 : 2, then what is the difference between present ages of these two persons?

1) 16 years 

2) 20 years 

3) 24 years 

4) 12 years 

5) 8 years

2. In how many different ways can the letters of the word “MOBILE” be arranged?

1) 120 

2) 240 

3) 360 

4) 720 

5) 36

3. The population of a city is 480000. It increases by 8% in the first year and decreased by 9% in the second year. What will be the population of city after two years?

1) 565056 

2) 471744 

3) 518400 

4) 481344 

5) 523200

4. A train starts from Delhi and reaches Lucknow in 24.5 hours. If it travels the first half of journey at 30 kmph and second half at 40 kmph then what is the total distance it travelled?

1) 750 km 

2) 800 km 

3) 840 km 

4) 900 km 

5) 920 km

5. A wall have length 24m and breadth 16m. What will be total cost of painting it from both sides if rate of painting is Rs 8 per square metre?

1) Rs 5696 

2) Rs 5856 

3) Rs 6032 

4) Rs 6144 

5) Rs 6272

6. Mahesh sold an item to Shyam at 15% discounted value of printed rate. The discounted value is Rs. 867. If the printed rate is 20% profit on the purchase rate, then what is the purchase rate?

1) Rs 825 

2) Rs 850 

3) Rs 875 

4) Rs 900 

5) Rs 950

7. Vijay spent 25% of his monthly salary on food, 20% of remaining amount on house rent, and 8% of remaining amount on cloths. Now he is with Rs. 6624. How much amount he spent on cloths?

1) Rs 884 

2) Rs 778 

3) Rs 712 

4) Rs 642 

5) Rs 576

8. A mixture of 60 litres of milk and water contains 15% water. How much water must be added to make 40% water in the new mixture?

1) 12 litres 

2) 15 litres 

3) 20 litres 

4) 25 litres 

5) 30 litres

9. ‘A’ can do a work in 40 days. ‘B’ takes 60 days to complete it. ‘C’ takes as long as ‘A’ and ‘B’ would take working together. How long will it take A, B & C to complete the work together?

1) 12 days 

2) 15 days 

3) 20 days 

4) 24 days 

5) 30 days

10. What will come in place of both question marks (?) in the following equation?

75/? = ?/147

1) 49 

2) 95 

3) 115 

4) 85 

5) None of these

Answers:
1. 2
Let the present age of these two persons are ‘x’ & ‘y’
(x + y)/2 = 46
x + y = 92
(x - 16)/(y - 16) = 1/2
2x - 32 = y - 16
2x - y = 16

Hence, x = 36 years & y = 56 years
Difference = 56 - 36 = 20

2. 4

Total number of letters is six and their is no repeatation.

So number of arrangements = 6! = 720

3. 2
Population = 480000 * 108/100 * 91/100 = 471744

4. 3
Let the total distance is 'x' km
x/(2 * 30) + x/(2 * 40) = 24.5
x/6 + x/8 = 245
(4x + 3x)/24 = 245
x = (245 * 24)/7 = 840 km

5. 4
Area of wall = 24 × 16 = 384 sqm
Area from both side = 2 × 384 = 768 sqm
Cost of painting = 768 × 8 = 6144

6. 2
Let the pruchase rate be ‘x’
Then, printed price = x + x * 20/100 = 6x/5
After 15% discounts, the price = 6x/5 - 6x/5 * 15/100 = 51x/50
51x/50 = 867
x = (867 * 50)/51 = 850

7. 5
Let his salary be x
x * 75/100 * 80/100 * 92/100 = 6624
x = 12000
Amount on clothes = 12000 * 80/100 * 75/100 * 8/100 = Rs. 576

8. 4
Let the water added be ‘x’ litre. Initially water was
15% of 60 litre ie 60 × 15/100 = 9 litres now water is (9 + x) litre
9 + x = (60 + x) × 100
40
45 + 5x = 120 + 2x
3x = 120 – 45 = 75
x = 25 litres

9. 1

(A + B)'s 1 day work = 1/40 + 1/60 = (3 + 2)/120 = 1/24
which is equal to C's 1 day work
(A + B + C)'s 1 day work
= 1/40 + 1/60 + 1/24 = (3 + 2 + 5)/120 = 1/12
(A + B + C) can finish the work in 12 days.

10. 5
75/? = ?/147
?^2 = 75 * 147
? = sqroot(75*147) = 105

Quantitative Aptitude

Quant Quiz

1.A certain sum is invested for certain time. It amounts to Rs. 35 at 10% per annum. But when invested at 8% per annum, it amounts to Rs. 30. Find the time?

1) 16 years

2) 20 years

3) 25 years

4) 30 years

5) 40 years

2.What sum of money at compound interest will amount to Rs.12,945.93 in  3 years, if the rate of interest is 7% for first year, 9% for second year and 11%  for third year?

1) Rs. 8750

2) Rs. 9800

3) Rs. 10000

4) RS. 10500

5) Rs. 11500

3. Ravi completes a work in 36 days. Vijay completes the same work in 24 days. Ravi starts working alone and after 6 days Vijay joins him. How many days they will take together to complete the remaining work?

1) 10 days

2) 12 days

3) 14 days

4) 8  days

5) 15 days

4. A man completes his journey in 8 hours. He goes to some destination and comes back. While going he drives at a seed of 25 kmph and  while coming he drives at a speed of 15 kmph. What is the total distance he travels.

1) 60 km

2) 75 km

3) 150 km

4) 96 km

5) 120 km

5. Two places P and Q are 150 km apart. A train leaves P for Q at the same time another train leaves Q for P. Both the trains meet 5 hours after they start moving. If the train travelling from P to Q travels 10 kmph faster than the other train, what is the speed of faster train?

1) 25 kmph

2) 20 kmph

3) 15 kmph

4) 30 kmph

5) 10 kmph

Directions (Q.6-10): in each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer

1) if x<y

2) if x>y

3) if x£y

4) if x³y

5) if x=y, or relationship between x and y can’t be established.

6. I. 6x^2-49x+99=0   II. 5y^2+17y+14=0

7. I. 5x^2=19x-12         II. 5y^2+11y=12

8. I. x^2=(1331)^1/3   II. 2y^2-21y+55=0

9. I. 5x=7y+21         II. 11x+4y+109=0

10. I. 2x^2-11x+12=0 II. 2y^2-17y+36=0

 

Answers 

1(3); Time=[(35-30)/(30×10-35×8)]×100=25

2.(3); A=P(1+r1/100)(1+r2/100)(1+r3/100)

12945.93=P(1+7/100)(1+9/100)(1+11/100)

P=10000

3(2);  2 R 36

72

3 V 24

Work done in 6 days=6x2=12

Remaining time=10/(3+1)=12 days

4.(3);

Let distance be x

x/25+x/15=8

x=75

Total distance=75x2=150

5(2);

Let the speed of train be U & V

U+V=150/5=30……………(i)

U=V+10 …………(ii)

From Eq. (i) & (ii)

U=20, V=10

6.(2);

x=11/3, 9/2

Y=-2, -7/5

7(4);

x=3, 4/5

Y=4/5, -3

8.(1);

x=+-3.13

Y=5, 11/2

9.(2);

x=-7

Y=-8

10.(3);

x=3/2, 4

Y=4, 9/2