New Pattern English Questions

Directions (1-5): In each of the following questions, there are four sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.

Q1. A. Sometimes, we think we are only the people with problems.

B. Our problems override other considerations; we can't think beyond our own vexations.

C. When we see a small dampness on our wall we scurry to get them repaired and corrected,

D. but we don't think of people whose homes have been washed away by the rage of the rain gods.

(a) A and B

(b) B and D

(c) C only

(d) C and D

(e) None of the above

Q2. A. Chen Jianping repeated again on twitter something her fiancé said

B. about anti-Japan protests getting violent, and added, "Charge, angry youth!"

C. For this she was sentenced one year in a labour camp.

D. Twitter is banned in China, but its easy to use blocked sites with simple internet tricks.

(a) A only

(b) B only

(c) C only

(d) B and D

(e) None of the above

Q3. A. The Great Pacific Garbage Patch, is gyre of marine litter in the central North Pacific Ocean.

B. The patch extends over a very wide area, with estimates ranging from area

C. the size of the state of Texas to one larger as the continental United States;

D. however, the exact size is unknown.

(a) A and D

(b) B and C

(c) C only

(d) D only

(e) None of the above

Q4. A. At media agency Mindshare's Mumbai office

B. sit a team of ninety-three individuals

C. who's only focus is the consumer giant Hindustan Unilever.

D. In fact, this unit occupies an area the size of most mid-sized agency's in this country.

(a) A only

(b) A and C

(c) A and D

(d) B and C

(e) None of the above

Q5. A. One of the classroom exercise I conduct with my Persuasive Communication students

B. at IIMA is taken from Kurukshestra war.

C. I ask a student to be Kunti, other to be Karna.

D. Kunti has to persuade Karna to leave Duryodhana and join the Pandavas.

(a) A only

(b) A and B

(c) C and D

(d) D only

(e) None of the above

Directions (6-10): In each of the following questions, a statement and five choices are given. Select from among the choices, the most logical complement and mark its number as your answer.

Q6. Electricity is the backbone of industrial development

(a) Many of our new electric projects are lying abandoned.

(b) The authorities are exploring the possibility of starting non-conventional energy sources.

(c) Reliable and uninterrupted power is a prerequisite for development.

(d) People demand some urgent measures to improve the situation.

(e) Hydroelectric projects are unable to meet the demand.

Q7. Our country is rapidly becoming a consumer nation.

(a) The nation must stand on its own legs.

(b) For financial progress we must reduce import and increase export.

(c) We want to become financially strong.

(d) We are not yet Independent because we depend on other countries in certain fields.

(e) India must become self – sufficient and reduce importing goods.

Q8. Children find it difficult to get admission to primary schools as demand exceeds supply.

(a) The government is against starting new schools.

(b) Primary education has been declared compulsory.

(c) The government schools offer better education than the private schools.

(d) The private sector is exerting influence upon the ruling party to recommend the opening of new schools.

(e) The private schools make the most of the situation and charge hefty fees.

Q9. The C.B.I. presented an incriminating report about the minister’s foreign connection.

(a) The Newspapers published a lot of nonsense.

(b) The court ordered a judicial enquiry into the whole affair.

(c) People believe all sorts of hearsay without going into their merits.

(d) The party-connection emboldens everybody to do whatever he likes.

(e) The C. B. I need to look into all aspects before arresting a senior politician.

Q10. The author’s new book was widely accepted by the common people but it angered those in power.

(a) The book was acclaimed for the political criticism it contained.

(b) The author has employed all his power of observation to prepare the book.

(c) People in the Gulf countries arranged a number of meetings to welcome him.

(d) To secure a valid passport the author had to force a lot of political intervention.

(e) The author’s new book is not available in any of the book shops.

Directions (11-15): Rearrange the following SIX sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

A. Indeed, one recent study found that spending money on others is more rewarding than spending it on oneself.
B. It feels good to be good.
C. The paradoxical finding here is that one great trick to being happy is to forget about being happy and instead try to increase the happiness of others.
D. The effects of our kindness are not zero-sum.
E. Those who receive charity have their lives improved, but those who provide it also benefit.
F. It’s not just short-term pleasure: those who donate wealth and time to others tend to be a lot happier in their entire lives than those who do not.

Q11. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F

Q12. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q13. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) A

Q14. Which of the following will be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F

Q15. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) A

Solutions

S1. Ans.(b)

Sol. Answer Option B. B and D. In A ‘only’ is misplaced; “we are the only people…” In C, the pronoun ‘them’ is inconsistent (in number) with its antecedent’ a small dampness’; ‘it’ is the correct pronoun.

S2. Ans.(b)

Sol. Answer Option B. B only. In A ‘repeated again’ is redundant. ‘repeated’ is correct. In C, ‘sentenced one year…’ is incorrect; ‘sentenced to one year…’ will make it correct. In D, its is used instead of it’s.

S3. Ans.(d)

Sol. Answer Option D. D only. In A ‘gyre’ needs a determiner before that ‘a gyre’ would be correct. In B ‘ranging from an area…’ would be correct. In ‘as large as’ or ‘larger than’ would correct the part. “larger as” is incorrect.

S4. Ans.(a)

Sol. Answer Option A. A only. In B, The verb ‘sit’ for the subject ‘team’ is incorrect. It should be ‘sits’. In C, who’s has to be replaced with ‘whose’. In D agency’s is incorrect, it should be agencies.

S5. Ans.(d)

Sol. Answer Option D. D only. A should be corrected to ‘one of the …exercises’. B has to include the definite article” the Kurukshetra war”. C should be corrected “another to be…” D has no error.

S6. Ans.(c)

Sol. Reliable and uninterrupted power is a prerequisite for development. Other options do not follow the idea expressed in the question statement logically. Either they distort the message or introduce new idea.

S7. Ans.(b)

Sol. For financial progress we must reduce import and increase export. Other options do not follow the idea expressed in the question statement logically. Either they distort the message or introduce new idea.

S8. Ans.(e)

Sol. Since demand is higher than supply in schools for admission, the private schools make the most of the situation and charge hefty fees.

S9. Ans.(b)

Sol. The court ordered a judicial enquiry into the whole affair. Since report was submitted to the court hence judge ordered an enquiry into the case. Hence option C logically follow course of action.

S10. Ans.(a)

Sol. the book was acclaimed for the political criticism it contained.

S11. Ans.(c) 

Sol. The logical and correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph will be DEBAFC.

S12. Ans.(e) 

Sol. The logical and correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph will be DEBAFC.

S13. Ans.(a) 

Sol. The logical and correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph will be DEBAFC.

S14. Ans.(c) 

Sol. The logical and correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph will be DEBAFC.

S15. Ans.(e) 

Sol. The logical and correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph will be DEBAFC.

New Pattern English

Directions (1-4): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Once surrounded and protected by vast wilderness, many of the national parks are adversely affected by activities outside their boundaries. The National Park Organic Act established the national park system and empowered the Secretary of the Interior to manage activities within the parks. Conditions outside park boundaries are not subject to regulation by the Park Service unless they involve the direct use of park resources. Several approaches to protecting the national parks from external degradation have been proposed, such as one focusing on enacting federal legislation granting the National Park Service broader powers over lands adjacent to the national parks. Legislation addressing external threats to the national parks twice passed the House of Representatives but died without action in the Senate. Also brought to the table as a possible remedy is giving the states bordering the parks a significant and meaningful role in developing federal park management policy.

Because the livelihood of many citizens is linked to the management of national parks, local politicians often encourage state involvement in federal planning. But, state legislatures have not always addressed the fundamental policy issues of whether states should protect park wildlife. Timber harvesting, ranching and energy exploration compete with wildlife within the local ecosystem. Priorities among different land uses are not generally established by current legislation. Additionally, often no mechanism exists to coordinate planning by the state environmental regulatory agencies. These factors limit the impact of legislation aimed at protecting park wildlife and the larger park ecosystem. Even if these deficiencies can be overcome, state participation must be consistent with existing federal legislation. States lack jurisdiction within national parks themselves, and therefore state solutions cannot reach activities inside the parks, thus limiting state action to the land adjacent to the national parks. Under the supremacy clause, federal laws and regulations supersede state action if state law conflicts with federal legislation, if Congress precludes local regulation, or if federal regulation is so pervasive that no room remains for state control. Assuming that federal regulations leave open the possibility of state control, state participation in policy making must be harmonized with existing federal legislation.

The residents of states bordering national parks are affected by park management policies. They, in turn, affect the success of those policies. This interrelationship must be considered in responding to the external threats problem. Local participation is necessary in deciding how to protect park wildlife. Local interests should not, however, dictate national policy, nor should they be used as a pretext to ignore the threats to park regions.

Q1. What is the main purpose of the author in writing the passage?

(a) argue that rampant timber harvesting is degrading national parks

(b) describe a plan of action to resolve an issue

(c) discuss different approaches to dealing with a problem

(d) suggest that local participation is necessary to solve the problem described

(e) to assert that national parks are adversely affected by activities outside  their boundaries

Q2. The passage provides support for which of the following assertions?

(a) The National Park Organic Act gave the Secretary of the Interior the right to overrule state government policy in lands adjacent to national parks.

(b) The federal government has been selling national park land to state governments in order to raise money for wildlife conservation.

(c) The actions of state governments have often failed to promote the interests of national park wildlife.

(d) Local politicians want the federal government to turn control of national parks over to state governments.

(e) Timber harvesting and energy exploration have not had any impact on national parks

Q3. In the context of the passage, the phrase external degradation (lines 8-9) refers to

which of the following:

(a) threats to national parks arising from the House of Representative's willingness to address environmental issues.

(b) threats to national parks arising from state government environmental policies.

(c) threats to national parks arising from local politicians‘ calls for greater state involvement in national park planning.

(d) threats to national parks arising from the National Park Organic Act.

(e) threats to national parks arising from the lack of local support

Q4. According to the passage, which of the following developments is most likely if environmental cooperation between the federal government and state governments does not improve?

(a) A further decline in the land area of national parks

(b) A further increase in federal ownership of land adjacent to national parks

(c) A further growth in the powers of the National Park Service

(d) A further loss of species in national parks

(e) A further increase in timber harvesting activities

Directions (5-15): In the following questions, two sentences are given. There may be an error in the sentence(s). Read the given options carefully and mark the correct answer.

Q5. I. He had rather go than stay behind.

II. We have received a message from him only six hours ago.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;

(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;

(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and

(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.

(e) None of the above condition is applicable

Q6. I. The Flower show, which was held in the spacious Glass House, is attended by a large crowd.

II. Someone is knocking at the door.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;

(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;

(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and

(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.

(e) None of the above condition is applicable 

Q7. I. Moni asked for leave as she was feeling a severe pain in her knee.

II. The magnanimous lady was moved by the sight of an old beggar, who was lying on the side of the road.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;

(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;

(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and

(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.

(e) None of the above condition is applicable

Q8. I. The couple decided to stay at the hill station for few more days as they were enchanted by the beautiful landscape.

II. The director does not seem to be impressed by the arrangements made for the seminar.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;

(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;

(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and

(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.

(e) None of the above condition is applicable

Q9. I. The little girl watched the bird curiously, when it ate the grains and flowed away.

II. The novel by the writer will finish before the end of this year.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;

(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;

(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and

(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.

(e) None of the above condition is applicable

Q10. I. Manish is the role model for the beginners who hope that they can accomplish well by their sincere efforts.

II. A program should be either informative or is entertaining in order to pull a large crowd.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;

(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;

(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and

(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.

(e) None of the above condition is applicable

Q11. I. The employee having a taste of success, he determined to put a lot of effort into the project.

II. Misha completed the research project successfully so she was the recipient of a doctorate degree.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;

(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;

(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and

(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.

(e) None of the above condition is applicable

Q12. I. Much to his chagrin he found his children preferred instant success than long-term benefit.

II. The job of the female marketing employees is similar with that of their male counterparts.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;

(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;

(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and

(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.

(e) None of the above condition is applicable

Q13. I. No one objected to the notion of shifting to new premises, did they?

II. It never occurred to me that perhaps he was cheating.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;

(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;

(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and

(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.

(e) None of the above condition is applicable

Q14. I. The disastrous earthquake caused loss of life, property and loss of the hope of survival.

II. When Atul was traveling abroad, he received a message from one of his friends that his film was nominated for the Oscar.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;

(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;

(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and

(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.

(e) None of the above condition is applicable

Q15. I. Ronit admired the car but not its price.

II. Srijit is tall enough to see above the heads of other people.

(a) if there is an error only in the first sentence;

(b) if there is an error only in the second sentence;

(c) if there are errors in both sentences; and

(d) if there is no error in either of the sentences.

(e) None of the above condition is applicable

Solutions

S1. Ans.(c)

Sol. If you have mapped the passage correctly you will notice that most of the passage discusses the different approaches that can be taken to solve the problem of degradation of national parks. C matches best with this. (C): The Correct Answer

S2. Ans.(c)

Sol. An Inference question, this one requires students to find that one option which can logically follow from the information in the passage without making any extreme assumptions. Only (C) has support in the passage. (C): The Correct Answer

S3. Ans.(b)

Sol. Go back to the lines before and after the phrase to judge its meaning in context. The phrase refers back to the damage mentioned in the passage, and is expanded on in the lines below. The author believes that the damage outside park boundaries is supported by state governments, option (B) summarizes the nature of the ―external degradation.(B): The Correct Answer

S4. Ans.(d)

Sol. The ―according to the passage...‖ start to the question tips you off to look for a detail within the passage. Where is the scenario in the question mentioned? Go to the last paragraph, which discusses a combination of national and local responses. It argues that this cooperation is necessary in order to ―protect park wildlife. If this cooperation doesn‘t occur then, wildlife would presumably be harmed. (D) rewards the careful reading. (D): The Correct Answer

S5. Ans.(c)

Sol. Sentence I should be – He would rather go …… would denotes willingness or determination (which is what is denoted in the sentence.)

Sentence II, the simple past tense not the present perfect tense – we received a message….

S6. Ans.(a)

Sol. I. The first verb ‘was held’ is in past tense and the second verb ‘is attended’ is in present, a past action; ‘is’ should be changed to ‘was’.

II. The second sentence has no error. But ‘knocking on’ is also correct.

S7. Ans.(c)

Sol. I. The verb ‘feel’ is not used in continuous tense so it should be changed to simple past tense as it is in past continuous. Change ‘was feeling’ to ‘felt’

II. The preposition ‘on’ should be replaced by ‘by’. Both the sentences have errors.

S8. Ans.(a)

Sol. I. ‘Few’ means no or nothing. ‘A few’, which means some should be used instead of ‘few’.

II. The given sentence has no error.

S9. Ans.(c)

Sol. I. The verb ‘flowed’ is the past tense of ‘flow’. Here, the past tense of ‘fly’, i.e. ‘flew’ should be used. fly – flew – flown

flow – flowed – flowed

II. The verb in the given sentence is in active voice, which is incorrect. ‘Will be finished’ is the correct form. ‘Will have been finished’ is also correct as we use future perfect tense to denote an action that will be completed by some point of time in the future. Both sentences have errors.

S10. Ans.(b)

Sol. I. The given sentence has no error.

II. When a correlative conjunction is used in a sentence, both the conjunctions should be followed by the words of same parts of speech. ‘Either-or’ is the correlative conjunction. Either is followed by an adjective, but or is followed by a verb, which is wrong. Delete ‘is’ to make the sentence correct.

S11. Ans.(a)

Sol. I Having a taste of success, the employee determined… is correct. The given sentence is a simple sentence, which has a phrase and a clause.

II. The sentence has no error. Only the first sentence has an error.

S12. Ans.(c)

Sol. I. The verbs ‘prefer’ takes the preposition ‘to’, not ‘than’. Use ‘to’ in the place to ‘than’ to correct the sentence.

II. Replace the preposition ‘with’ with ‘to’ to make the sentence correct. Both the sentences have errors.

S13. Ans.(d)

Sol. Both the sentences are correct.

S14. Ans.(a)

Sol. I. The phrase ‘loss of’ in the last part of first sentence is redundant. Delete this to make the sentence correct.

II. The given sentence is correct. Only the first sentence has an error.

S15. Ans.(b)

Sol. I. The given sentence is correct.

II. ‘see above’ is incorrect. ‘See over’ is the correct form. Only the second sentence has an error.

New Pattern English Questions

Directions (1-5): In each of the following questions, a capitalized pair of words is given followed by five numbered pairs of words. Select from choices the pair which exhibits the same relationship as the capitalized pair of words and mark its number as your answer.

Q1. URBAN : CITY

(a) rustic : rust

(b) civilized : cultured

(c) modern : trendy

(d) global : world

(e) senile : age

Q2. CANVAS : ARTIST

(a) verse : poet

(b) speech : orator

(c) rock : sculptor

(d) voice : singer

(e) song : singer

Q3. SOLDIER : REGIMENT

(a) clown : circus

(b) actor : troupe

(c) dancer : ballet

(d) instrument : musician

(e) flute : wind

Q4. PACHYDERM : ELEPHANT

(a) reptile : squirrel

(b) guard : dog

(c) simian : monkey

(d) marsupial : kangaroo

(e) speak : parrot

Q5. MOON : SATELLITE

(a) star : constellation

(b) earth : planet

(c) sun : heat

(d) sky : dispersion

(e) thunder : lightening

Directions (6-8): In each question, there are pairs of words/phrases that highlighted. From the highlighted word(s)/phrase(s), select the most appropriate word(s)/phrase(s) to form correct sentences. Then, from the options given, choose the best one.

Q6. Pointless regulations foster (A)/abet (B) graft.

The more meddlesome (A)/irksome (B) the rule, the greater the incentive to bribe officials not to enforce it.

An excellent new study by the World Bank, “Doing Business in 2005”, shows that red tape is one of the chief obstacles (A)/stepping stones (B) to growth in almost all poor countries.

The World Bank estimates that if a country in the worst-regulated quartile were to join the best quartile, it would promote (A)/boost (B) its annual growth rate by 2.2 percentage points.

(a) BAAA

(b) ABBA

(c) BABA

(d) ABAB

(e) AAAA

Q7. The change in personnel-rarely a good sign-seemed to presage (A)/prequel (B) a change in strategy.

Mr. Kerry made two phone calls soliciting (A)/seeking (B) advice from Mr Clinton, who was lying in a hospital’s bed awaiting quadruple bypass surgery.

Mr Clinton apparently (A)/probably (B) told Mr Kerry to concentrate more on the economy and to step up his attacks on Mr Bush.

That has not stopped John Edwards being warned (A)/praised (B) on the campaign trail by loyalists “They’re going to run you right over and make you look like idiots.

(a) ABAB

(b) BBAA

(c) AAAA

(d) AABA

(e) BBBB

Q8. In other words, there is probably much more to gain from promoting (A)/slashing (B) red tape than from begging for more aid.

Especially since donors, unlike air travelers in Angola, are not exactly queuing up (A)/ freewheeling (B) to open their wallets.

Mr. Putin said after Beslan that “we showed ourselves to be weak, and the weak get beaten.” The implication (B)/ indication (B) is that he will now be even tougher in Chechnya.

Not only is that likely to entertain (A)/stir up (B) more terrorism; it also ignores one of the conflict’s main drivers, which is cast.

(a) AABA

(b) AABB

(c) BABA

(d) BAAB

(e) BBBB

Directions (9-15): In each of the questions, choose the meaning of phrase/idiom (given in bold).

Q9. President Saddam Hussein’s effort to annex Kuwait was nothing short of setting the Thames on fire.

(a) A try to achieve an impossible distinction

(b) To destroy the country for nothing

(c) To show his power and might

(d) To make a situation worse

(e) None of these

Q10. One should not stay idle at home; but be up and doing.

(a) Sleeping

(b) Active

(c) Working

(d) Reading

(e) None of these

Q11. Mr Arjun Singh snapped his fingers at Narasimha Rao and got himself in hot water.

(a) To support

(b) To disregard

(c) To deprive

(d) To interfere

(e) None of these

Q12. We are afraid you may not be led astray in by Arvind’s bad company.

(a) Get into trouble

(b) Misguided

(c) Killed

(d) Lose the job

(e) None of these

Q13. To cry wolf

(a) To give false alarm

(b) To turn pale

(c) To ruin over self

(d) To overcome someone

(e) None of these

Q14. To be in dribs and drabs

(a) Without fail

(b) With much ease

(c) In small quantities

(d) With great difficulty

(e) None of these

Q15. A hard nut to crack is

(a) One who is very obstinate

(b) Very difficult child

(c) A walnut or a fruit

(d) Problem that is hard be solved

(e) None of these

Solutions

S1. Ans.(d)

Sol. Global means relating to the world just as urban means relating to the city.

S2. Ans.(c)

Sol. A rock is the medium for a sculptor just as a canvas is for the artist.

S3. Ans.(b)

Sol. A troupe is a collection of actors even as a regiment is a collection of soldiers.

S4. Ans.(d)

Sol. An elephant is a pachyderm just as a kangaroo is a marsupial.

S5. Ans.(b)

Sol. The earth is a planet just as the moon is a satellite.

S6. Ans.(d)

Sol. foster -encourage the development of (something, especially something desirable).

irksome -irritating; annoying. The word ‘boost’ in sentence D gives us the hint to mark the correct answer.

S7. Ans.(c)

Sol. presage-be a sign or warning of (an imminent event, typically an unwelcome one).

solicit-ask for or try to obtain (something) from someone.

S8. Ans.(d)

Sol. slashing -vigorously incisive or effective.

implication- the conclusion that can be drawn from something although it is not explicitly stated. The phrase ‘stir up’ in last sentence hints us towards correct option. 

S9. Ans.(a)

Sol. set the Thames on fire. To do wonderful or exciting things; to cause a great or remarkable sensation in the world; to be extremely exciting, popular, famous, renowned, etc.

S10. Ans.(b)

Sol. up and around; up and doing. Active again, especially after an illness or rest

S11. Ans.(b)

Sol. snap one's fingers at- Treat with contempt, scorn, disregard,

S12. Ans.(b)

Sol. lead someone astray- to direct or guide someone in the wrong direction

S13. Ans.(a)

Sol. To cry wolf-to cry or complain about something when nothing is really wrong.

S14. Ans.(c)

Sol. in dribs and drabs -in small portions; bit by bit

S15. Ans.(d)

Sol. A hard nut to crack -a difficult problem to solve