KRISHNA MOHAN

Thursday, 10 August 2017

English Questions Asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2017

Dear Students, Today(5th August, 2017) was the first day of SSC CGL Tier-1 2017 Exam. We have provided the analysis of Shift-1 of SSC CGL 2017 Exam. Today in this post we shall discuss the English questions asked in the CGL Tier-1 2017 Exam. These questions are based on the types asked in cgl tier-1 2017, we have taken full care in providing these questions, if there is any correction, please do let us know about it. we will verify and update. we will keep updating questions of all shifts of SSC CGL tier-1 Exam.

Q1. Find the Synonym for the following question?

Opulent

(a) Sparse

(b) Ascetic

(d) Penurious

S1. Ans.(c)

Sol. opulent: ostentatiously costly and luxurious.

Q2. Find the Synonym for the following question?

Grotesque

(a) Ordinary

(b) Normal

(d) Distorted

S2. Ans.(d)

Sol. grotesque: comically or repulsively ugly or distorted.

Q3. Find the Antonym for the following question?

Irk

(a) Genial

(b) Exasperate

(d) Pique

S3. Ans.(a)

Sol. irk: irritate; annoy, genial-friendly and cheerful.

Q4. Find the Antonym for the following question?

Apex

(a) Base

(b) Zenith

(d) Median

S4. Ans.(a)

Sol. Apex-the top or highest part of something, especially one forming a point.

Q5. Find the Correctly Spelt word?

(a) Neeice

(b) Neice

(d) Niecie

S5. Ans.(c)

Sol. ‘Niece’ is correct spelling.

Q6. Find the Correctly Spelt word?

(a) Dectionary

(b) Dictioenery

(d) Dictionary

S6. Ans.(d)

Sol. ‘Dictionary’ is correct spelling.

Directions (7-9): Some parts of the sentences have error and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error.

Q7. If I am you I would not have behaved like that.

(a) If I am you

(b) I would not have behaved

(d) No error

S7. Ans.(a)

Sol. Write ‘had been’ in place of ‘am’.

Q8. He made me to do all the work.

(a) He made me

(b) to do

(d) No error

S8. Ans.(b)

Sol. Write ‘do’ in place of ‘to do’. Infinitive ‘to’ is not used with the verb ‘make’.

Q9. Neither of them were able to complete the work.

(a) Neither of them

(b) were able to

(d) No error

S9. Ans.(b)

Sol. Write ‘was’ in place of ‘were’.

Q10.A person who is made to bear the blame due to others.

(a) Omnipresent

(b) Anonymous

(d) Epilogue

S10. Ans.(c)

Sol. scapegoat: a person who is blamed for the wrongdoings, mistakes, or faults of others, especially for reasons of expediency.

Q11.That which cannot be corrected.

(a) Inevitable

(b) Incorrigible

(d) None of these

S11. Ans.(b)

Sol. incorrigible: (of a person or their behaviour) not able to be changed or reformed.

Q12. Short speech a poem given at the end of a play or book

(a) epilogue

(b) preface

(d) climax

S12. Ans.(a)

Sol. epilogue: a section or speech at the end of a book or play that serves as a comment on or a conclusion to what has happened.

Directions (13-17): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the Answer Sheet.

Since you have never had to (13) me for anything, perhaps you wouldn’t be (14) sticking (15) me now that I have run (16) debt, and (17) these people that it is in no way a Reflection on my character.

Q13.

(a) Appreciate

(b) Reproach

(d) Pester

S13. Ans.(b)

Sol. Reproach- express to (someone) one's disapproval of or disappointment in their actions.

Q14.

(a) Averse to

(b) Deprived of

(d) Desirous of

S14. Ans.(a)

Sol. Averse to- having a strong dislike of or opposition to something.

Q15.

(a) At

(b) On

(d) To

S15. Ans.(d)

Sol. Preposition ‘to’ is correct.

Q16.

(a) In

(b) Into

(d) On

S16. Ans.(b)

Sol. Preposition ‘into’ is correct.

Q17.

(a) Alluding

(b) Making

(d) Informing

S17. Ans.(c)

Sol. Convincing- is correct choice.

Q18.What is the meaning of the idiom "teething problems"?

(a) Something that is of less value

(b) problems in society

(d) teeth problems

S18. Ans.(c)

Sol. teething troubles: short-term problems that occur in the early stages of a new project.

Q19. What is the meaning of the idiom "To keep the wolf away from the door"?

(a) To keep away from extreme poverty

(b) To keep off an unwanted and undesirable person

(d) To hold the difficulties and dangers in check

S19. Ans.(a)

Sol. keep the wolf from the door: to maintain oneself at a minimal level; to keep from starving, freezing.

Q20. What is the meaning of the idiom "To keep the ball rolling"?

(a) To earn more and more

(b) To work constantly

(d) To make the best use of

S20. Ans.(c)

Sol. keep the ball rolling: to cause something that is in progress to continue.

Q21. He has seen many ups and downs in life but he has never been as much dejectedas he is today.

(a) that much dejected

(b) so much in dejection

(d) No improvement

S21. Ans.(c)

Sol. so dejected. So-as is correlative conjunction and used in pairs.

Q22. Socrates had many disciples and the most great of them was Plato.

(a) the greater

(b) the greatest

(d) No improvement

S22. Ans.(b)

Sol. the greatest- article ‘the’ is used with superlative degree.

Q23. Neither the judge nor I am ready to announce who is the winner.

(a) am ready to announce who the winner is

(b) are ready to announce who the winner is

(d) No improvement

S23. Ans.(a)

Sol. “am ready to announce who the winner is”. In statement form of the sentence, we use verb after the subject.

Directions (24-25): The sentences given in each question, which properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

Q24.

A. In 2010-11, the studies conducted showed that the growth of exports from the various Indian states was robust.

B. In the first half of 2011-12 there was robust export growth in case of Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, and Time Nadu.

C. The data on state of origin of exports of goods showed that the two States, namely Gujarat and Maharashtra, accounted for 46 percent of exports from India.

D. Only Goa and negative export growth due to fall in ore exports owing to a ban on exports of iron ore by the Karnataka government

(a) ABCD

(b) CDBA

(d) BCDA

S24. Ans.(d)

Sol. The logical and correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph should be- BCDA.

Q25.

A. Widely published tables of income levels of all countries indicate that when incomes are higher, the greater is the contribution made by the manufacturing industry.

B. Countries that have little or no industry are almost invariable poor.

C. The lesson is clear, to overcome poverty and backwardness, a country must become industrialized.

D. Industrialization is seen as the key to growth and a prerequisite for development.

(a) CBAD

(b) DCBA

(d) CABD

S25. Ans.(c)

Sol. The logical and correct order of the sentences of the given paragraph should be- DABC

Static Awareness

Q1. Telangana has split from Andhra Pradesh to become the newest 29th State of India on 2nd June 2014 with Hyderabad as the shared capital. Who has become Telangana's first Chief Minister?
(a) K Chandrashekhar Rao
(b) N Chandrababu Naidu
(c) Y S Rajasekhara Reddy
(d) Siddaramaiah
(e) None of the above

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. Telangana's first chief minister, K. Chandrashekar Rao of the Telangana Rashtra Samithi, is also the current incumbent. He has held office since the day Telangana was carved out of Andhra Pradesh, 2 June 2014.

Q2. World Environment Day (WED) is celebrated every year on ..........to raise global awareness to take positive environmental action to protect nature and the planet Earth.
(a) 10th December
(b) 24th October
(c) 08th March
(d) 02nd October
(e) 05th June

S2. Ans.(e)
Sol. World Environment Day (WED) occurs on 5 June every year, and is the United Nation's principal vehicle for encouraging worldwide awareness and action for the protection of our environment. First held in 1974, it has been a flagship campaign for raising awareness on emerging environmental issues from marine pollution, human overpopulation, and global warming, to sustainable consumption and wildlife crime.

Q3. Raul Castro is the current President of which country?
(a) Ghana
(b) Cuba
(c) Peru
(d) Latvia
(e) Nauru

S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. Raul Modesto Castro Ruz is a Cuban politician who has been President of the Council of State of Cuba and the President of the Council of Ministers of Cuba since 2008. Castro previously exercised presidential powers in an acting capacity from 2006 to 2008. Castro is Commander in Chief of the Armed Forces, and has also been First Secretary of the Central Committee of the Communist Party of Cuba (PCC) since 2011.

Q4. Sushil Kumar Solanki is famous in which of the following field?
(a) Politics
(b) Art and Living
(c) Film and Television
(d) Author
(e) None of the above

S4. Ans.(e)
Sol. Sushil Kumar Solanki is an Indian freestyle wrestler. Competing in the 66 kg weight division he won the 2010 world title, a silver medal at the 2012 London Olympics and a bronze medal at the 2008 Beijing Olympics, which made him the only Indian to win two individual Olympic medals.

Q5. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a political and economic organisation of ten member countries. Where is the headquarter of ASEAN?
(a) Bangkok, Thailand
(b) Phnom Penh, Cambodia
(c) Naypyidaw, Myanmar
(d) Jakarta, Indonesia
(e) Hanoi, Vietnam

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the Founding Fathers of ASEAN, namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand. Brunei Darussalam then joined on 7 January 1984, Viet Nam on 28 July 1995, Lao PDR and Myanmar on 23 July 1997, and Cambodia on 30 April 1999, making up what is today the ten Member States of ASEAN.

Q6. Dena Bank headquartered in Mumbai was founded in 1938. What is the tagline of Dena Bank?
(a) Trusted family Bank
(b) The Name you can Bank Upon
(c) Tadition of trust
(d) A friend you can bank upon
(e) None of the above

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Dena Bank, in July 1969 along with 13 other major banks was nationalized and is now a Public Sector Bank constituted under the Banking Companies Act, 1970. Under the provisions of the Banking Regulations Act 1949, in addition to the business of banking, the Bank can undertake other business as specified in Section 6 of the Banking Regulations Act, 1949.

Q7. Who is the present and 20th Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Shahabuddin Yaqoob Quraishi
(b) T S Vijayan
(c) Raghuram Rajan
(d) Syed Nasim Ahmad Zaidi
(e) R S Sharma

S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. The decisions of the commission are taken by a majority vote. Nasim Zaidi is the current Chief Election Commissioner and other two Election Commissioners are Achal Kumar Jyoti and Om Prakash Rawat. H.S.Brahma retired on 19th April,2015 . After then Dr.Nasim Zaidi took over as 20th Chief Election Commissioner.

Q8. Maa Vindhyavasini Devi Temple is located in Vindhyachal in the Indian state of?
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttra Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
(e) Uttarakhand

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. Vindhyavasini is name of a benevolent aspect of Devi Amba or Durga. Her temple is located at Vindhyachal, 8 km away from Mirzapur on the banks of river Ganges, in Uttar Pradesh. The goddess gets her name from Vindhya Range and the name Vindhyavasini, literally means, she who resides in Vindhya. As it is believed that the Shaktipeeths were created on earth, where the body parts of Sati fell.

Q9. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is an international financial institution that aims to support the building of infrastructure in the Asia-Pacific region.Who is the present president of AIIB?
(a) Ban ki Moon
(b) D J Pandian
(c) Lou Jiwei
(d) Jin Liqun
(e) None of the above

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a new multilateral financial institution founded to bring countries together to address the daunting infrastructure needs across Asia. By furthering interconnectivity and economic development in the region through advancements in infrastructure and other productive sectors, we can help stimulate growth and improve access to basic services. Mr. Jin Liqun is the chief of staff and has accountability for all of the Bank’s operations.

Q10. Bharat Ratna' is the highest civilian award of the country. The award was started by formal President of India Rajendra Prasad on 2nd January, 1954.The number of annual awards is restricted to a maximum of_______ in a particular year.
(a) Two
(b) Four
(c) Ten
(d) Six
(e) Three

S10. Ans.(e)
Sol. The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India. Instituted in 1954, the award is conferred "in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order". The recommendations for the Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President, with a maximum of three nominees being awarded per year. Recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a peepal-leaf–shaped medallion.

Q11. The writer who refused the Nobel Prize for literature was
(a) Winston Churchil
(b) Jean Pal Sartre
(c) Boris Pasternak
(d) Prem Chand
(e) Svetlana Alexievich

S11. Ans.(b)
Sol. The 59-year-old author Jean-Paul Sartre declined the Nobel Prize in Literature, which he was awarded in October 1964. He said he always refused official distinctions and did not want to be "institutionalised".

Q12. Which Indian city is also known as City of Four Junctions?
(a) Mathura
(b) Patiala
(c) Madurai
(d) Bijnor
(e) Malda

S12. Ans.(c)
Sol. Madurai district is second largest in population of the 32 districts of the state of Tamil Nadu, in southeastern India.[1] The city of Madurai serves as the district headquarters. It houses the world-famous Sri Meenakshi Sundareshwarar temple and is situated on the banks of the river Vaigai. Madurai is called with various nicknames like Athens of the East, Thoonga Nagaram (City that never Sleeps), Naan maada koodal (City of Four junctions), Koil Nagar (Temple city) etc.

Q13. Who among the following is the Vice Chairperson of the United Nations Human Rights Committee?
(a) Mrs. Marry Rohinson
(b) Ms. Sadaka Ogata
(c) Mr. Justice P. N. Bhagawati
(d) Ms. Gro Harlem Brundtland
(e) Mr. Yuji IWASAWA

S13. Ans.(e)
Sol. The United Nations Human Rights Committee is a United Nations body of 18 experts that meets three times a year for four-week sessions to consider the five-yearly reports submitted by 168 UN member states on their compliance with the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, ICCPR, and any individual petitions concerning 112 States parties to the Optional Protocol.

Q14. Who among the following has become the first winner of Charleston-EFG John Maynard Keynes Prize?
(a) Amartya Sen
(b) A.P.J. Kalam
(c) L.K. Advani
(d) Manmohan Singh
(e) None of the above

S14. Ans.(a)
Sol. Eminent Indian Economist and Nobel laureate Amartya Sen has won the newly instituted Charleston-EFG John Maynard Keynes Prize. He was awarded in recognition of his work on welfare economics.

Q15. Who invented the polio vaccine (oral)?
(a) Jonas Salk
(b) Albert Sabin
(c) Burkholder
(d) Robert Koch
(e) Jhon Watson

S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. The first polio vaccine was the inactivated polio vaccine. It was developed by Jonas Salk and came into use in 1955. The oral polio vaccine was developed by Albert Sabin and came into commercial use in 1961.

Quant Questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2017

Q1. Sum of the CP’s of two cars is Rs. 1,00,000. 1st car is sold at a profit of 20% and 2nd car is sold at a loss of 20%. However, their SPs are same. What is the CP of 1st car?
(a) Rs. 40,000
(b) Rs. 60,000
(c) Rs. 52,400
(d) Rs. 47,600

S1. Ans.(a)

Sol.

Q2. The cost of production of a cordless phone set in 2006 is Rs. 900, divided between material, labour and overheads in the ratio 3 : 4 : 2. If the cordless phone set is marked at a price that gives a 20% profit on the component of price accounted for by labour, what is the marked price of the set?

(a) Rs. 980

(b) Rs. 1080

(d) Rs. 1020

Q3. A firm dealing in furniture allows 4% discount on the marked price of each item. What price must be marked on a dining table that cost Rs. 400 to assemble, so as to make a profit of 20%?

(a) Rs. 475

(b) Rs. 480

(d) Rs. 520

Q4. A reduction of 10% in the price of sugar enables a housewife to buy 6.2 kg more for Rs. 279. Find the reduced price per kilogram

(a) Rs. 5

(b) Rs. 4.5

(d) None of these

Q5.The difference between principal and Interest for 15 years at the rate of 5% at SI is given Rs250.Find the Principal.

Q12. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days which B and C together can do in 16 days. After A has been working at it for 5 days and B for 7 days, C finishes it in 13 days. In how many days B could finish the work?

(a) 48 days

(b) 24 days

(d) 12 days

Q13. A can write 75 pages in 25 hrs. A and B together can write 135 pages in 27 hrs. In what time can B write 48 pages?

(a) 17 hrs.

(b) 19 hrs.

(d) 23 hrs.

Q14. O and C are respectively the orthocenter and Circumcircle of an acute-angled triangle PQR. The points P and O are joined and produced to meet the side QR at S. If ∠PQS = 60° and ∠QCR = 130°, then ∠RPS =

(a) 30°

(b) 35°

(d) 60°

Q15. AB is a chord to a circle and PAT is the tangent to the circle at A. If ∠BAT = 75° and ∠BAC = 45°. C being a point on the circle on other side of T, then ∠ABC is equal to:

(a) 40°

(b) 45°

(d) 70°

Q16. A boat covers 24 km upstream and 36 km downstream in 6 hours, while it covers 36 km upstream and 24 km down–stream in 6.5 hours. The speed of the current is

(a) 1 km/hr

(b) 2 km/hr

(d) 2.5 km/hr

Q17. Fresh fruit contains 68% water and dry fruit contains 20% water. How much dry fruit can be obtained from 100 kgs of fresh fruits?

(a) 32 kgs.

(b) 40 kgs.

(d) 80 kgs.

S17. Ans.(b)

Sol.

Q18. The average of 8 numbers is 20. The average of first two numbers is 15.5 and the average of next three number is 21⅓. If the 6^th number is 4 and 7 less by the 7^th and the 8^th number respectively then what will be the 7^th number?

(a) 25

(b) 22

(d) 30

Q19. A man sells a plot of land at 6% profit. If he had sold it at 10% profit, he would have received Rs. 200 more. What is the selling price of the land?

(a) Rs. 5000

(b) Rs. 5300

(d) Rs. 5500