Sunday, 23 July 2017

Banking Awareness


Banking Awareness 


Q1. In case of original demand draft is presented after the duplicate has already been paid, the bank will _______?
(a) Pay the original demand draft  
(b) Pay the original demand draft as well and recover the amount from the purchaser on the strength of the indemnity bond
(c) Return with remarks “Draft reported lost, duplicate already paid will pay on collecting bank’s guarantee. 
In case the original draft is again presented, it should be honoured.” 
(d) Return with the remarks payment stopped by the payee 
(e) None of the above

Q2. The Central Bank in India is ______?
(a) The Reserve Bank of India
(b) The State Bank of India
(c) The Andhra Bank
(d) Central Bank of India
(e) None of the above

Q3. Stock exchange securities do not include?
(a) Debentures certificates  
(b) Small debentures issued by port trusts
(c) Government promissory notes
(d) Reverse Repo Rate
(e) None of the above

Q4. The Definition of ‘Banking’ is given in-
(a) Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881 
(b) RBI Act, 1934 
(c) The Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(d) Contract Act 
(e) None of the above

Q5. When was SBI established?
(a) April 1, 1935 
(b) July 31, 1969 
(c) May 5, 1955
(d) July 1, 1955
(e) None of the above

Q6. All of the following are examples of Quasi negotiable instruments, under the Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881, except.....?
(a) dividend warrants
(b) share warrants
(c) bearer debentures
(d) promissory note
(e) None of the above

Q7. Which of the following is not the essential requirement for the endorsement as per Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881?
(a) It should be on the instrument
(b) It should be made by the holder or the maker
(c) Signatures should be in ink and not by pencil or rubber stamp
(d) It should contain unconditional order
(e) The endorser should sign the endorsement in the same style and with the same spellings as written in the instrument

Q8. With reference to a cheque which of the following is the “drawee bank”?
(a) The bank that collects the cheque
(b) The payee's bank
(c) The endorsee's bank
(d) The endorser's bank
(e) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn

Q9. Which of the following is not a party of bill of exchange? 
(a) The drawer
(b) The drawee
(c) The payee
(d) The endorser
(e) None of the above

Q10. In terms of Section 5(1) (5) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, a ‘banking company’ means any company which...?
(a) accepts deposits from the public
(b) undertakes lending of money
(c) transacts the business of banking in
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

Q11. Under the Corporate Debt Restructuring (CDR) mechanism, loan assets of banks have been categorized. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 
(a) Assets belonging to Standard and Sub-Standard category come under category I
(b) Assets belonging to Doubtful category come under category II
(c) Assets belonging to Doubtful and Loss categories come under Category II
(d) Out of total Loan Assets, 90 per cent is Standard and Sub-standard and Doubtful is 10 per cent this lot comes under   Category I
(e) None of the above   

Q12. Under which of the following methods of depreciation, amount of depreciation varies every year? 
(a) Written Down Value Method 
(b) Straight Line Method 
(c) Amount of depreciation does not very on year to year basis
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above   

Q13. Usually, the validity period of an Income Tax Refund Order is? 
(a) 1 months 
(b) 2 months 
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
(e) None of the above   

Q14. What do you mean by “Outcome Budget”?
(a) It denotes reaction of the media after Budget Papers are approved in the Parliament 
(b) It aims to measure performance of the Government in various departments 
(c) It is a report submitted by the Government of India indicating made in -
different projects by ministries and  departments   as a first step towards converting outlays into income
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above   

Q15. What is “Stagflation”?
(a) inflation with growth 
(b) deflation with growth 
(c) inflation after deflations
(d) inflation with depression 
(e) None of the above

Banking Awareness


Banking Awareness 


Q1. Which of the following efforts fall under Financial Inclusion Plan (FIP) of RBI/government? 
(a) Nationalisation of banks 
(b) Priority Sector Lending (PSL) targets 
(c) Zero balance accounts, like BSBDA, Jan-Dhan Account, Small Account, etc. 
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

Q2. Which of the following is not true regarding Financial Inclusion Plan? 
(a) Relaxed and simplified KYC norms for account opening 
(b) Mandatory branches in unbanked villages 
(c) BSBDA Accounts with minimum balance criteria
(d) Micro branches to be opened in rural area, that can be operated by Business Correspondents 
(e) None of the above

Q3. According to the new proposal on PSL, what sub-target is to be created for Micro Enterprises in India by March 2017? 
(a) 7 % 
(b) 7.5% 
(c) 8 % 
(d) 8.5 % 
(e) None of the above

Q4. Financial Inclusion means provision of - 
(a) Financial services namely, payments, remittances, savings, 
loans and insurance at  affordable cost to persons not yet given the same
(b) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same 
(c) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same 
(d) education at affordable costs to persons not yet given the same 
(e) None of the above

Q5. What is the full form of 'FINO' - a term we see frequently in financial newspapers? 
(a) Financial Investment Network and Operations 
(b) Financial Inclusion Network and Operations
(c) Farmers' Investment in National Organization 
(d) Farmers' Inclusion News and Operations
(e) None of the above 

Q6. Which of the following is not a function of the RBI? 
(a) Maintaining Forex
(b) Deciding Bank Rate, CRR and SLR from time to time
(c) Opening Savings Accounts for general public
(d) Prescribing the Capital Adequancy Ratio
(e) Currency Management

Q7. The names of which of the following rates/ratios cannot be seen in financial newspapers? 
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Repo Rate
(c) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(d) Cash Reserve Ratio
(e) Pulse Rate

Q8. Ten-rupee notes contain the signature of................?
(a) Finance Secretary, GOI
(b) Chairman, State Bank of India
(c) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(d) Finance Minister, GOI
(e) Prime Minister

Q9. Banking and financial services all over the world are regulated usually by the Monetary Authority of the land. Who controls this function in India?
(a) Ministry of Finance
(b) SEBI
(c) RBI
(d) IRDA
(e) FEDAI

Q10. For which of the following reasons RBI has decided to undertake mid-quarter policy reviews? 
(1) To re-align its policies
(2) To take steps and ensure smooth flow of credit
(3) To provide guidance to the economy
(a) Only (1) 
(b) Only (2)
(c) Only (3) 
(d) All (1), (2) & (3)
(e) None of the above

Q11. Cash Reserve Ratio is maintained in the form of?
(a) Government Securities 
(b) Balance with Reserve Bank of India 
(c) Balance with State Bank of India 
(d) All of the above 
(e) None of the above

Q12. RBI is empowered to prescribe Cash Reserve Ratio ranging between?
(a) five per cent to twenty per cent of net demand and time liabilities 
(b) RBI is empowered to vary CRR between 15 percent and 3 percent
(c) three per cent to forty per cent of net demand and time liabilities 
(d) One of the above
(e) None of the above 

Q13. The functions of Back office are?
(a) It verifies and settles the deals 
(b) It maintains proper record of Book keeping 
(c) It submits financial returns of RBI
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

Q14. Banks can receive deposits from customers up to a maximum period of?
(a) 10 years
(b) 15 years 
(c) 20 years 
(d) 25 years
(e) None of the above  

Q15. Khandelwal Committee relates to study of ………….. issue in Public Sector Banks? 
(a) Capital Adequacy Ratio 
(b) Human Resources
(c) Branch Expansion  
(d) Foreign Exchange
(e) None of the above 


Banking Awareness


Banking Awareness 


Q1. RRB is established in _________.
(a) 5 Oct 1936
(b) 7 Oct 1935
(c) 4 Oct 1965
(d) 2 Oct 1975
(e) None of the above

Q2. Foreign Currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called-
(a) Fiat Currency
(b) Soft Currency
(c) Token Currency
(d) Hot Currency
(e) None of the above

Q3. The banker is under an obligation to take utmost care in keeping secrecy of the details of the customer. 
However, the obligation of secrecy is not considered essential when
(a) a banker is required to give evidence in the court
(b) there is national emergency and disclosure is essential in the public interest
(c) there are clear proofs of reason to the state and when consent is given by the customer to provide information for the     preparation of balance sheet
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

Q4. Which of the following is the Central Bank of the country?
(a) RBI
(b) SBI
(c) RRB 
(d) NABARD
(e) SEBI

Q5. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. sponsored organization?
(a) SIDBI
(b) NABARD
(c) NHB
(d) ICICI Bank
(e) None of the above

Q6. When a corporate entity wishes to raise money from the market it can do that by issuing _________.
(a) Commercial Papers
(b) Treasury Bills
(c) KisanVikas Patra
(d) National Savings Certificates
(e) None of the above

Q7. On the basis of powers drawn mainly in which of the following Acts, RBI regulates and controls the banks in India?
(a) Banking Regulation Act and RBI Act 
(b) RBI Act and Companies Act 
(c) Banking Regulation Act and Companies Act 
(d) Banking Regulation Act, RBI Act and Negotiable Instruments Act 
(e) None of the above

Q8. With reference to a cheque which of the following is the “drawee bank”?
(a) The bank that collects the cheque
(b) The payee's bank
(c) The endorsee's bank
(d) The endorser's bank
(e) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn

Q9. Which of the following is not a party of bill of exchange? 
(a) The drawer
(b) The drawee
(c) The payee
(d) The endorser
(e) None of the above

Q10. Where the time for payment is  not mentioned in a promissory note it is?
(a) invalid instrument 
(b) inchoate instrument 
(c) no payment can be demanded 
(d) payable on demand
(e) None of the above

Q11. Bank Rate is __________
(a) Rate at which commercial banks borrow long term funds from central Bank.
(b) Rate at which commercial banks borrow short term funds from central Bank.
(c) Currently Bank rate is 6.75%
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) None of the above

Q12. In which year Public Debt Act was passed?
(a) 1938
(b) 1940
(c) 1944
(d) 1948
(e) None of the above

Q13. Non-Agricultural Market Access (NAMA) word is related to which organization?
(a) WTO
(b) UNCTAD
(c) IMF
(d) World Bank
(e) NDB

Q14. SEBI is related to _________.
(a) Bank 
(b) Government of India
(c) Share Market
(d) State Government
(e) None of the above

Q15. “Micro Credit” means?
I. Loan of very small amount 
II. Loans to Corporate Sector
III. Loans amounting Rs 50 lakhs to Rs 5 crores to Medium and small Industries Units 
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (I) and (II)
(d) All of the above 
(e) None of the above 

Banking Awareness


Banking Awareness 


Q1. National Income of India is estimated by?
(a) Central Estimates Survey Committee
(b) National Sample Survey Committee
(c) Central Statistical Organization
(d) Finance Ministry
(e) Other than the given options

Q2. Net National Product is equivalent to-
(a) Gross Domestic Product minus Depreciation
(b) Gross National Product minus Indirect Taxes
(c) Net National Income minus Depreciation
(d) Gross National Product minus Depreciation
(e) Other than the given options

Q3. Nomination facility is available to-
(a) Individuals/Sole Proprietorship accounts/Private Limited Companies
(b) Individuals/Sole Proprietorship Accounts/Partnership Accounts
(c) Individuals/Sole Proprietorship Accounts
(d) All of the above
(e) Other than the given options

Q4. Off Shore Banking Unit is?
(a) a unit which is situated in Foreign country
(b) a unit which is situated in Special Economic Zones and deals in foreign currency only
(c) a unit which is actively participating in lending foreign currency loans and in joint ventures
(d) All of the above
(e) Other than the given options

Q5. Which of the following is the apex authority for Direct Taxes? 
(a) CBDT
(b) CBEC 
(c) RBI 
(d) SEBI 
(e) Other than the given options

Q6. If a bank is unable to refund the short term deposits as funds are locked in long term loans, it involves?
(a) Interest Rate Risk
(b) Operational Risk
(c) Liquidity Risk
(d) Market Risk
(e) Other than the given options

Q7. If a cheque presented through the Clearing House is returned unpaid for any reason, the banker has to enclose the cheque to a Returning Memo while returning the instrument to the customer. This provision has been prescribed under...?
(a) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
(b) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(c) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(d) RBI Clearing House Rules
(e) Other than the given options

Q8. If a currency note is demonetized, it takes away the ________ of that currency.
(a) legal tender character
(b) exchange rate
(c) value
(d) All of the above
(e) Other than the given options

Q9. If credit facility applied for is rejected, the reasons therefore should be briefly mentioned in the-
(a) Loan Applications Received and Disposal Register
(b) Opinion Reports
(c) Loan Rejection Register
(d) All of the above
(e) Other than the given options

Q10. In case of Term Loans, the period of limitation is calculated as three years from?
(a) Date of documents
(b) Date of sanction
(c) Date of default
(d) Due date of each installment
(e) Other than the given options

Q11. Currency Note containing political slogan is not a legal tender as per:
(a) Legal Tender (Inscribed Notes) Act, 1964
(b) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
(c) Reserve Bank of India Act
(d) All of the above
(e) Other than the given options

Q12. Demand draft for Rs. 20,000 and above:
(a) can be paid in cash
(b) should not be paid in cash
(c) mode of payment will depend on the status of the customer 
(d) All of the above
(e) Other than the given options

Q13. Deposits under NRE/FCNB accounts are linked to-
(a) Base Rate
(b) SIBOR
(c) LIBOR
(d) All of the above
(e) Other than the given options

Q14. Electronic Fund Transfer scheme of RBI has been renamed as:
(a) Clearing
(b) Core Banking Solutions
(c) Real Time Gross Settlement
(d) National Electronic Fund Transfer
(e) All of the above

Q15. Escrow account is useful/helpful to-
(a) importers
(b) exporters
(c) people
(d) Assets
(e) Other than the given options

Banking Awareness


Banking Awareness 



Q1. Interest on the savings bank accounts is compounded ____?
(a) Daily
(b) Yearly 
(c) Quarterly 
(d) Half-yearly
(e) All of the above

Q2. The Head of Reserve Bank of India is?
(a) Chief Executive Officer 
(b) Managing Director 
(c) Chief Banking Officer 
(d) Governor
(e) Other than the given options

Q3. Who supplies interest-charts for different maturities and for different rates of interest?
(a) IBA
(b) RBI
(c) Government of India
(d) IBRD
(e) Other than the given options

Q4. Rates of Interest on deposits are determined by ____?
(a) IBA 
(b) Ministry of Finance 
(c) The Bank Itself
(d) Government of India
(e) Other than the given options

Q5. Current account becomes dormant when there are no withdrawals for the last _____?
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 24 months
(d) 12 months 
(e) Other than the given options

Q6. One rupee notes bear the signature of..........?
(a) Governor of Reserve Bank of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) President of India
(d) Secretary, Ministry of Finance (Government of India)
(e) Other than the given options

Q7. Mortgage is a..............?
(a) security on movable property for a loan given by a bank
(b) security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(c) concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(d) facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank
(e) security on immovable property for a deposit received by a bank

Q8. In terms of Section 5(1) (5) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, a ‘banking company’ means any company which-
(a) accepts deposits from the public
(b) undertakes lending of money
(c) transacts the business of banking in
(d) All of the above
(e) Other than the given options

Q9. Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument? 
(a) Cheque
(b) Pay order
(c) Bill of Exchange
(d) All of the above are negotiable instruments
(e) Other than the given options

Q10. Under the Corporate Debt Restructuring (CDR) mechanism, loan assets of banks have been categorized. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 
(a) Assets belonging to Standard and Sub-Standard category come under category I
(b) Assets belonging to Doubtful category come under category II
(c) Assets belonging to Doubtful and Loss categories come under Category II
(d) Out of total Loan Assets, 90 per cent is Standard and Sub-standard and Doubtful is 10 per cent this lot comes under   Category I
(e) Other than the given options

Q11. These days Banks are offering Loans against Property? Under which business segment, this activity may be categorized? 
(a) Corporate Banking  
(b) Personal Banking
(c) Merchant Banking 
(d) Portfolio Management-Services 
(e) Other than the given options

Q12. What do we mean by “ECB” in financial terms?
(a) Essential Commercial Borrowings     
(b) Essential Credit & Borrowings  
(c) External Credit & Business 
(d) External Commercial Borrowings
(e) Other than the given options

Q13. “Currency Swap” is an instrument to manage ____?
(a) Currency Risk 
(b) Interest Rate Risk     
(c) Currency and Interest Rate Risk 
(d) Cash Flows in different currencies
(e) All of the above 

Q14. “Plastic Money” denotes ________?
(a) Bearer cheque
(b) Credit card
(c) Demand Draft   
(d) Traveller’s cheque
(e) Gift cheque

Q15. RBI has recently introduced Cheque Truncation System, which means that ______?
(a) Physical movement of a cheque is stopped between banks and instead an electronic image be exchanged for clearance of funds   
(b) The physical movement of a cheque for clearance of funds be made more secure 
(c) Issue of cheques to customers be made more secure by introducing more enhanced security features 
(d) A new technology to process payments between Banks exclusively  
(e) Other than the given options


Solutions

S1. Ans.(a)
S2. Ans.(d)
S3. Ans.(a)
S4. Ans.(c)
S5. Ans.(c)
S6. Ans.(d)
S7. Ans.(b)
S8. Ans.(d)
S9. Ans.(d)
S10. Ans.(c) 
S11. Ans.(b)
S12. Ans.(d)
S13. Ans.(d)
S14. Ans.(b)

S15. Ans.(a)

Reasoning : Quiz


Reasoning : Quiz

Directions (Q.1-5). In the following questions , the symbols #,$,%,* and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘P#Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P$Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller nor equal to Q’.
‘P%Q’ means ‘P is neither greater nor smaller than Q’.
‘P*Q’ means ‘P is neither greater nor equal to Q’.
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.


Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true,
 find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

1. Statements: P # Q, P % R, R * S
Conclusions: I. R @ P
                      II. P # S.
A. If only conclusion I is true.
B. If only conclusion II is true.
C. If either conclusion I or II is true.
D. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
E. Both follows

2. Statements: F $ G, G @ I, I % H 
Conclusions: I. F @ H
                      II. H $ G
A. If only conclusion I is true.
B. If only conclusion II is true.
C. If either conclusion I or II is true.
D. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
E. Both follows

3. Statements: A * B, B# C, C $ D
Conclusions: I. A * D
                        II. A @ D
A. If only conclusion I is true.
B. If only conclusion II is true.
C. If either conclusion I or II is true.
D. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
E. Both follows

 4. Statements: A @ B, B $ C, C % D
Conclusions: I. D * A
                        II. C * A
A. If only conclusion I is true.
B. If only conclusion II is true.
C. If both conclusion I and II are true.
D. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
E. Both follows

5. Statements : Q @ W, W $ E , E # R
Conclusions: I. R # Q
                        II. E * Q
A. If only conclusion I is true.
B. If only conclusion II is true.
C. If either conclusion I or II is true.
D. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
E. Bothy follows

Directions (Q. 6-10). In a certain code language some word are written in coded form which are given below:
‘What Were You Thinking’ is written as ‘ta ba la na’
‘Now Stop Thinking Read’ is written as ‘Pa ba ch da’
‘Write Stop listen speak’ is written as ‘yo ma Pa ta’
‘What listen Read speak’ is written as ‘ch yo la ma’

6. What is the code for ‘Read’?
A. Pa
B. da
C. ch
D. yo
E. None of these

7.What is the code for ‘thinking’?
A. yo
B. la
C. ma
D. None of these
E. ta

8. What is the code for ‘Stop’?
A. ba
B. pa
C. da
D. ch
E. na

9. What is the code for ‘Now’ ?
A. yo
B. ma
C. da
D. None of these
E. ch

10. What is the code for ‘What’ ?
A. la
B. ba
C. da
D. ta
E. ch

Directions (Q. 11-15) In each question given below four statements are followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. 
You have to take the all given statements to be true even if they seem to be a variance from the commonly known facts. 
Read the conclusion and decide which logically follows. 
Give Answer:
1. If only conclusion I follows.
2. If only conclusion II follows.
3. If either conclusion I or II follows.
4. If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5. If both conclusions I and II follows.
11. Statements: 
Some trains are Buses. All Buses are Cars.
Some Cars are Motorbikes. Some Motorbikes are Cycles.
Conclusions:
I. Some Cycle being Train is a possibility.
II. Some Car being Boy is a possibility.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

12. Statements: 
Some Trains are Buses. All Buses are Cars.
Some Cars are Motorbike. Some Motorbikes are Cycle.
Conclusions: 
I. No Motorbike is a Car.
II. All Cars are Train.
A. 2
B. 5
C. 3
D. 4
E. 1

13. Statements: 
All Men are Male. Some Male are Female.
No Female is a Women. All Women are Human.
Conclusions:
I. Some Human being Men is a possibility.
II. Some Human being Female is a possibility.
A. 5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1
E. 2

14. Statements:
All Men are Male. Some Male are Female.
No Female is a Women. All Women are Human.
Conclusions:
I. No Women is a Male.
II. Some Male are Women.
A. 1
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
E. 2

15. Statements:
All Actors are Producer. Some Producers are Director.
All Directors are Writer. Some Writers are Actress.
Conclusions:
I. Some Actress being Producer is a possibility.
II. Some Writer are Producer.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D.1
E. 3

Answers

1. D
2. D
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. C
7.D
8.B
9. C
10. A
11.A
12.D
13. A
14. D
15.C

Reasoning Quiz


Reasoning Quiz

Directions (1-5): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language ‘some experts always give right advice’ is written as ‘fa do me re sa la’, ‘advice always very good’ is written as ‘cha re fa ta’, 
‘seniors always give suggestion’ is written as ‘ma la hpo fa’, ‘experts person are good’ is written as ‘clip cha sa den’, 
and ‘seniors are very right’ is written as ‘ta hpo clip do’.


1. What is the code for ‘advice’?
1) fa 
2) do 
3) me 
4) re 
5) either ‘fa’ or ‘re’

2. What does ‘ta’ stand for?
1) right 
2) are 
3) very 
4) advice 
5) Can’t be determined

3. Which of the following is code for ‘some suggestions are good’?
1) le sa cha ma 
2) fa sa cip me 
3) ma me clip cha 
4) cha cip ta do 
5) None of these

4. Which of the following may represent ‘experts are very decesive’?
1) fa sa cha hpo 
2) cip ta sa ja 
3) cha cip sa la 
4) sa ta clip mi 
5) None of these

5.  ‘do fa den clip’ could be a code for which of the following?
1) person are always right 
2) right person are expert 
3) experts are always advice
4) advice are always good 
5) None of these

Directions (6-10): Read the following information carefully to answer the question given below.

Seven Friends—Amit, Babita, Chetna, Deepak, Eti, Rythem and Kavita are from different places such as—Meghalaya, Kashmir, Bihar, Shimla, Shilong, -
Jammu and Maharashtra (but not in the same order). Each of them are in three different colleges X, Y, Z. At least two friends are studying in the same college. 
Rest of the information is given below:
(a) Deepak is from Bihar and studies in college X.
(b) Eti is from Shimla but does not study in college X.
(c) Rythem is from Shilong and studies in college Y with only Babita.
(d) Amit is neither from college X and nor from Kashmir.
(e) Kavita is from Jammu but does not study in college X.
(f) In college X, there is no student from Meghalaya or Kashmir.

6. The group of friends studying in college Z is-
1) Amit, Eti, Kavita 
2) Babita, Chetna, Rhythem 
3) Babita, Chetna
4) Amit, Rythem, Kavita 
5) None of these

7. Amit is in which college?
1) X 
2) Y 
3) Z
4) Either X or Y 
5) Can’t be determined

8. Which of the following is not correct?
1) Amit–Meghalaya–Z 
2) Eti–Shimla–Z 
3) Rythem–Shilong–Y
4) Chetna–Meghalaya–Z 
5) None of these

9. Babita is from which place?
1) Meghalaya 
2) Kashmir 
3) Jammu
4) Shilong 
5) None of these

10. Who belongs to Meghalaya?
1) Amit
2) Chetna 
3) Babita
4) Can’t be determined 
5) None of These

Directions (11-15): A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule. 
The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: who is 30 beyond then 06 but tailer the 38

Step I: the 38 who is 30 beyond then 06 but tailer
Step II: the 38 is 30 who beyond then 06 but tailer
Step III: the 38 is 30 then 06 who beyond but tailer
Step IV: the 38 is 30 then 06 who tailer beyond but
Step V: the 38 is 30 then 06 who tailer but beyond
Step V is the last step of the above input

As per rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

Input: “doing any notice loss than 50 ask major than 30 note error 40.”

11. Output: than 50 error 40 than 30 notice doing any loss ask major note
Above output is which of the following step?
1) Step III 
2) Step IV 
3) Step V 
4) Step VI 
5) None of these

12. What is the position of ‘loss’ in step VI?
1) Second from right 
2) Seventh from right 
3) Seventh from left 
4) Second from left 
5) None of these

13. Which of the following will be step III?
1) than 50 error 40 doing any notice loss ask major than 30 note
2) than 50 error 40 than 30 doing any notice loss ask major note
3) than 50 error 40 than 30 any notice doing loss ask major note
4) than 50 error 40 than 30 doing notice any loss ask major note
5) None of these

14. How many steps are required to complete this arrangement?
1) Eight 
2) Seven 
3) Six 
4) Five 
5) None of these

15. What is the position of ‘30’ in step III.
1) Fifth from the left 
2) Fifth from the right 
3) Sixth from the left
4) Sixth from the right 
5) None of these




Solutions (1-5):
are – clip
seniors – hpo
very – ta
right – do
good – cha
expert – sa
person – den
always – fa
advice – re
give – la
suggestion – ma
some - me
1. (4)
2. (3)
3. (3)
4. (4)
5. (1)

Solutions (6-10):

6. (1)
7. (3)
8. (4)
9. (2)
10. (1)

Solutions (11-15):
Words attached with numbers are arranged according to the decreasing order of numbers along with attached words. Rest of the words are then arranged in descending order.

Input: doing any notice loss than 50 ask major than 30 note error 40
Step I: than 50 doing any notice loss ask major than 30 note error 40
Step II: than 50 error 40 doing any notice loss ask major than 30 note
Step III: than 50 error 40 than 30 doing any notice loss ask major note
Step IV: than 50 error 40 than 30 notice doing any loss ask major note
Step V: than 50 error 40 than 30 notice note doing any loss ask major
Step VI: than 50 error 40 than 30 notice note major doing any loss ask
Step VII: than 50 error 40 than 30 notice note major loss doing any ask
Step VIII: than 50 error 40 than 30 notice note major loss doing ask any

11. (2)
12. (1)
13. (2)
14. (1)
15. (3)