Wednesday, 19 July 2017

New Pattern English Questions


Directions (1-5): Find the meaning of the underlined/BOLD word in the following sentence.

Q1. His arrogant statement needlessly vitiated the atmosphere and effectively sabotaged the peace parleys.
(a) devastated
(b) energized
(c) spoilt
(d) engrossed
(e) electrified


Q2. In our system of education, homework is imperative.
(a) impalpable
(b) unnecessary
(c) a handicap
(d) authorized
(e) compulsory

Q3. Confidence in government hospitals has eroded considerably in the past decade.
(a) worn away
(b) been lost
(c) corroded
(d) withered
(e) reduced

Q4. Ram works as a laundry boy and hates the drudgery of his routine.
(a) routineness
(b) upheavals
(c) tiresomeness
(d) values
(e) tension

Q5. Apart from its regular array of activities there is an exhibition-cum-sale of different kinds of sarees at the exhibition.
(a) order
(b) stream
(c) varieties
(d) range
(e) horde


Directions (6-15): In each of the following questions, a capitalized pair of words is given followed by five numbered pairs of words. Select from choices the pair which exhibits the same relationship as the capitalized pair of words and mark its number as your answer.

Q6. MODESTY : BRAGGART
(a) humility : orator
(b) innocence : puritan
(c) kindness : butcher
(d) showiness : actor
(e) simplicity : ascetic

Q7. BREAD : OVEN
(a) ceramics : kiln
(b) silo : corn
(c) pottery : wheel
(d) iron : furnace
(e) kettle : stove

Q8. NUMERATOR : DENOMINATOR
(a) fraction : decimal
(b) divisor : quotient
(c) top : bottom
(d) dividend : divisor
(e) circle : point

Q9. WATER : CONDUIT
(a) electricity : magnet
(b) elevator : shaft
(c) shell : rifle
(d) noise : cannon
(e) sword : holster

Q10. ORNITHOLOGIST : BIRDS
(a) aquarium : fish
(b) anthropologist : insects
(c) spectator : game
(d) architect : buildings
(e) archaeologist : artefacts

Q11. DOCTOR : DISEASE
(a) psychiatrist : maladjustment
(b) teacher : pupils
(c) scholar : knowledge
(d) judge : justice
(e) author : book

Q12. PLAINTIFF : DEFENDANT
(a) court : law
(b) injured : accused
(c) judge : jury
(d) attorney : lawyer
(e) criminal : crime

Q13. MORPHINE : SEDATES
(a) drug : addicts
(b) liquor : intoxicates
(c) medicine : soothes
(d) oil : smears
(e) water : vapor

Q14. OFTEN : RARELY
(a) same : similar
(b) constantly : frequently
(c) always : never
(d) intermittently : casually
(e) frequently : occasionally

Q15. TRICK : FRAUD
(a) plan : deceive
(b) associate : segregate
(c) money : fraud
(d) true : loyal
(e) magic : fun


SOLUTIONS
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. vitiate- spoil or impair the quality or efficiency of.

S2. Ans.(e)
Sol. imperative- an essential or urgent thing.

S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. eroded-gradually destroy or be gradually destroyed.

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. drudgery- hard menial or dull work.

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. Array-an impressive display or range of a particular type of thing.

S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. You cannot expect kindness from a butcher just as you cannot expect modesty form a braggart.

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. Ceramics are hardened in a kiln just as bread is baked in an oven.

S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. Numerator and denominator refer to what is above and below the line in a fraction. Dividend and divisor are also above and below the line in a mathematical problem.

S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. An elevator goes through and is in a shaft just as water flows through and is in a conduit. (the shell goes through only a part of the rifle and is not always there in a rifle).

S10. Ans.(e)
Sol. An archaeologist studies artifacts just as an ornithologist studies birds.

S11. Ans.(a)
Sol. A psychiatrist deals with maladjustments just as a doctor deals with diseases.

S12. Ans.(d)
Sol. The lawyer and the district attorney are on opposite sides of a litigation just like the plaintiff and defendant.

S13. Ans.(b)
Sol. Liquor intoxicates just as morphine sedates.

S14. Ans.(e)
Sol. Frequently and occasionally are opposites like often and rarely.

S15. Ans.(a)

Sol. A plan may be used to deceive just as a trick may be used for a fraud.

New Pattern English Questions


Directions (1-15): In the following questions, four sentences are given, you have to find out a sentence which is out of the context of the paragraph. 

Q1. A. When a brand has earned the respect of consumers and are “followed,” 48% are positive to receiving messages from that brand.
B. But the question that needs to be asked: is all this money being spent wisely?
C. Social media is everywhere and marketers are planning to take full advantage by pledging more budget than ever to the plethora of new communication channels available.
D. Billions of dollars are expected to be invested across the globe in 2013 as the explosion in social shows little signs of slowing.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 


Q2. A. They are the finest in their respective fields, their areas of expertise range from climbing cliffs that stretch to the heavens, without safety nets of course, to wing suit jump off those very same cliffs.
B. Now, you might have heard of the next chap.
C. It is always a strange, life-threatening form of sport; only those not in their right mind would try it.
D. Doyle is part of an elite force of over 600 brand agents.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q3. A. This must change.
B. This would encourage long term investment and channelize saving in the productive financial assets of equities.
C. In the case of equities, retail investors have to rely on the kindness of brokers or advisors to scan a profitable investing opportunity.
D. Indians save a lot but invest mostly in gold and real estate and very little in equity.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q4. A. In India, that is the norm, with 22 constitutionally-decreed languages and thousands of dialects.
B. It was conventional wisdom that Indians thinks fast and multitask because of endemic adversity: the situation demands and fosters it.
C. It is rare to find most people fluent in more than a single language in most places.
D. For those who marvel at the Indian talent of multitasking – best displayed by shopkeepers and dhaba waiters – the clue could lie in most of us being polyglots.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q5. A. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh has promised concrete steps to fight inflation.
B. It will not only ensure better returns to farmers but also keep inflation under check.
C. Farmers should be able to sell their produce freely.
D. This requires states to scrap the Agricultural Produce Marketing Committee (APMC) laws that give monopoly to some traders to buy crops.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q6. A. Almost immediately, speculation began about which team he would come back to train after a year-long sabbatical in the United States. Global football chatter – always opinionated and occasionally substantive – speculated that two English clubs were likely destinations for Pep.
B. These were Manchester City and Chelsea, each with super-rich owners.
C. Nearly a year ago when Pep Guardiola, the most successful coach of the world’s best football team, FC Barcelona, quit at the end of a triumphant season, shockwaves went around the soccer universe.
D. What does Pep’s choice reveal about the state of European football?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q7. A. Spectrum is a case in point – though not depleting in reality, it faces scarcity of a different kind because of technological evolution bringing in more and more innovative uses, which does create a scarcity factor of sorts.
B. In an era when a keyboard is all pervasive; controlling trajectories of space missions, nuclear plants to aircrafts in flight, anything and everything is possible to bring in efficiencies of scale to make the utilization of natural resources such that costs to the consumer are brought down.
C. This debate has been going on for over three decades, but it has been sought to be suppressed for parochial reasons of ownership.
D. Not to embrace technology that helps in the preservation of ever-depleting natural resources to bring about benefits to humanity and to prolong the resources is a sin.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q8. A. The reactors have been running for decades without any serious environmental issues.
B. Soon after commissioning, the original suppliers left, leaving us to fend for ourselves.
C. The first nuclear reactors in India were imported. 
D. It had to be so because there was no other group than the Department of Atomic energy working in this field.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q9. A. He helped kindle fears that effectively shut down GM foods in Europe and in developing nations like India.
B. But having gone into the science behind it – and getting the Royal Society science book prize for his “Six Degrees” – he found his beliefs on GM foods were myths.
C. To achieve a doubling of food output by 2050 low-yielding organic technology, huge forests and grasslands will have to be cleared and cultivated.
D. Mark Lynas says when he first heard of Monsanto’s GM soya, he thought a nasty US corporation was putting out a monster food by mixing genes.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q10. A. They just go ahead and do it because it is part of their nature.
B. Because if the rich man gives up his wealth to feed the poor and makes a show of it, he would still be far from heaven.
C. Eastern scholar RH Blyth said that it is not so much our sins that are obvious weaknesses and a vulgarity, as our virtues that we need to be delivered from.
D. “Forgive us our good deeds as we forgive those who do good deeds to us.”
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q11. A. The ability of such cells to morph into any other sort of cell suggested that worn-out or damaged tissues might be repaired, and diseases thus treated – a technique that has come to be known as regenerative medicine.
B. Fourteen years ago James Thomson of the University of Wisconsin isolated stem cells from human embryos.
C. However, experimental treatments fail far more often than they succeed.
D. It was an exciting moment.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q12. A. Among the many new gadgets unveiled at the recent Consumer Electronics Show in Las Vegas was a pair of smartphones able to exchange data using light.
B. Using light offers the possibility of breaking out of this conundrum by exploiting a completely different part of the electromagnetic spectrum, one that is already ubiquitous because it is used for another purpose: illumination.
C. These phones, as yet only prototypes from Casio, a Japanese firm, transmit digital signals by varying the intensity of the light given off from their screens.
D. The flickering is so slight that it is imperceptible to the human eye, but the camera on another phone can detect it at a distance of up to ten metres.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q13. A. At the recent Consumer Electronics Show in Las Vegas, talk of Ultra HD was on everyone’s lips. 
B. The recent floor of 3D films largely failed that test.
C. The development most are hoping will do the trick is a display technology known as Ultra High-Definition that offers four times the resolution of today’s 1,080p HDTV sets.
D. Having seen interest in 3D television fizzle, consumer-electronics firms are desperate to find some other blockbuster product that will get customers back into big-box stores.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q14. A. The rapid shrinkage of Arctic ice cover is one of the most dramatic changes in nature currently occurring anywhere on the planet, with profound environmental and economic implications.
B. There are several oil-related environmental risks specific to the Arctic Ocean.
C. The once fabled northeast and northwest passages will reduce shipping times and costs by as much as half, bringing China and Japan much closer to Europe and North America’s east coast.
D. We stand to lose one of the Earth’s largest and most significant ecosystems.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Q15. A. For better or worse, youth brands have lost the fear of alienating people who are not the core demographic.
B. The ‘91 and later generations have grown up with a far wider and more global set of influences. 
C. Or at least expect them to take a lot more ribbing without complaining.
D. These ads are early signs of the clash between the pre and post liberalization generations.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) None of the above 

Solutions
S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. C, B and D pursue the theme of the perceived importance of social media and the huge budgets in this direction. Sentence A is tangential and has no relation to this theme.

S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. The 600 brand agents of Doyle and their strange and daredevil expertise are described in D, A and C in that order. From this point of view B does not make sense.

S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. D, A and C (or D, C and A) in that order make sense about the saving habits of Indians and the need to change. However, B starts abruptly and without connection that “this would encourage…” – hence is the odd sentence.

S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. D states the theme to which other two sentences (A and C) are related – that the multitasking ability of Indians spring from their being polyglots. Sentence B brings in another factor “adversity” – hence is odd in this context. 

S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. Statements C, B and D in that order or C, D and B in that order talks about the freedom that farmers should have to sell their produce freely. Statement A in this context has no connection with the others.

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol.  C, A and B read in that order narrates the story of Pep’s quitting. Statement D mentions “Pep’s choice” which is highly ambiguous as there is no mention of any choice in the other three sentences.

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. “Not to embrace technology that helps in the preservation of ever-depleting natural resources…” is theme of the three sentences BDA in that order – spectrum is advanced as an example. “this debate…” in C is disconnected.

S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. It had to be so in D raises the question “what had to be so.” C, B and A in that order give us the history and performance of nuclear reactors in India. D, A, E etc., in D though related to the subject is not related to the theme of the other three sentences.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. The other three sentences in the order of D, A and B describe the change of view of Mark Lynas with regards to GM foods. The doubling of food output etc. in C is out of context in this narrative.

S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. The other three sentences read in the order CBD follow the same theme – that we need to be delivered from our ostentatious virtues. Hence forgive us our good deeds in D connects with C and B. However, A does not connect.

S11. Ans.(c)
Sol. A followed by D and then by B make sense and talk about regenerative medicine – the technique and its discovery. From this point of view the failure of the “experimental treatments” (in itself ambiguous) has place in this theme.

S12. Ans.(b)
Sol. “breaking out of this conundrum” in statement B does not related to any of the other three sentences. The other three sentences in the other of A, C and D introduce a new discovery or technology to us.

S13. Ans.(b)
Sol. The other sentences are about ultra HD because the interest in 3D television sets has fizzled. 3D films “failing the test” is out of context.

S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. “oil related environmental risks” is not related to the other sentences which talk about the effects of rapid shrinkage of Arctic ice cover.

S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. The other three sentences are about youth brands. The theme is youth brands rather than what B talks about – wider and more global exposure of the liberalized generation. It is relevant to the theme but is not the theme. A, C and D follow the theme.

Banking Awareness


Q1. The FATF is an inter-governmental body. FATF stands for-
(a) Financial Action Task Forum
(b) Financial Action Task Fund
(c) Financial Action Time Force
(d) Financial Agency Task Force
(e) Financial Action Task Force
S1. Ans.(e)
Sol. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body.

Q2. ___________ is used to describe small loans granted to low-income individuals that are excluded from the traditional banking system.
(a) Industries credit
(b) Microcredit
(c) Small credit
(d) Farmer credit
(e) None of the given options is true
S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. Microcredit is used to describe small loans granted to low income individuals that are excluded from the traditional banking system. It is part of the larger microfinance industry, which provides not only credit, but also savings, insurance, and other basic financial services to the poor. The term ‘micro’ stems from the relatively small amounts of money that are being borrowed or saved.
Q3. In which among the following year FATF was established?
(a) 1978
(b) 1982
(c) 1995
(d) 1989
(e) 1962
S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 by the Ministers of its Member jurisdictions.
Q4. Which year was declared as the 'International Year of Microcredit' by United Nations?
(a) 2002
(b) 2009
(c) 2005
(d) 2011
(e) 2000
S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. Year 2005 was declared as the 'International Year of Microcredit' by United Nations.
Q5. The market in which long-term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is commonly known as-
(a) Bullion Market
(b) Capital Market
(c) Bull Market
(d) Money Market
(e) None of the given options is true
S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. A capital market is a financial market in which long-term debt or equity-backed securities are bought and sold.

Q6. Which bank becomes first Bank in India to launch EMI facility on debit cards?
(a) Bandhan Bank
(b) SBI
(c) HDFC Bank
(d) ICICI Bank
(e) Axis Bank

S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. ICICI Bank, the country’s largest private sector bank, announced the launch of EMI (Equated Monthly Installments) facility on debit cards to enable its customers to convert high value transactions into easy instalments. ICICI Bank is the first in the country to introduce this facility.
Q7. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1935
(b) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(c) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1930
(d) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1921
(e) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1942

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Reserve Bank of India Act 1934 is an Act to constitute a Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and provide the central bank (RBI) with various powers to act as the central bank of India.
Q8. Which of the following features fit for E-Banking-?
(a) Providing Ease in banking operations
(b) Stress on branchless banking
(c) Time Saving
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the given options is true
S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. Here is the following features fit for E-Banking-
(a) Providing Ease in banking operations
(b) Stress on branch less banking
(c) Time Saving
Q9. If cheque is issued by a bank in the same city as the payee, the cheque will be called?
(a) Outstation Cheque
(b) Local Cheque
(c) At par Cheque
(d) Multicity Cheque
(e) None of the given options is true
S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. A local cheque is issued by a bank in the same city as the payee.
Q10. CTS is a cheque clearing system undertaken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for faster clearing of cheques. What is the meaning of "T" in CTS?
(a) Truncation
(b) Transfer
(c) Travel
(d) Ticket
(e) Trust
S10. Ans.(a)
Sol. Cheque Truncation System (CTS) is a cheque clearing system undertaken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for faster clearing of cheques. As the name suggests, truncation is the process of stopping the flow of the physical cheque in its way of clearing.
Q11. The reserves which can act as liquidity buffer for commercial banks during crisis times are-
(a) Repo Rate
(b) CRR
(c) SLR
(d) Bank Rate
(e) Both (b) and (c)
S11. Ans.(e)
Sol. CRR and SLR is reserves which can act as liquidity buffer for commercial banks during crisis times.
Q12. Money Laundering is-
(a) Conversion of money which is illegally obtained
(b) Conversion of money which is legally obtained
(c) All converted money
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the given options is true
S12. Ans.(a)
Sol. Money laundering is the process of creating the appearance that large amounts of money obtained from serious crimes, such as drug trafficking or terrorist activity (illegally sources) originated from a legitimate source.
Q13. "Good People to grow with" is the slogan of-
(a) Bank of Baroda
(b) Punjab National Bank 
(c) Central Bank of India
(d) Bank of India
(e) Indian Overseas Bank
S13. Ans.(e)
Sol. The slogan of Indian Overseas Bank is "Good People to Grow with".
Q14. Usha Ananthasubramanian is the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of-
(a) Bank of Baroda
(b) Allahabad Bank
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Punjab National Bank
(e) Canara Bank
S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. Usha Ananthasubramanian is the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of the Allahabad Bank.
Q15. Which Indian Bank's logo contains image of "Dog"-
(a) Vijaya Bank
(b) Dena Bank
(c) Syndicate Bank
(d) Indian Bank
(e) HDFC Bank

S15. Ans.(c)
Sol. Syndicate Bank's logo contains image of "Dog".

Banking Awareness


Q1. The largest shareholder of a public sector bank is-
(a) RBI
(b) Government of India
(c) NABARD
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true
S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. Public Sector Banks (PSBs) are banks where a majority stake (i.e. more than 50%) is held by a government. The shares of these banks are listed on stock exchanges.

Q2. Which of the following works is/are done by Credit Information Companies?
(a) Collecting records of an individual’s payments pertaining to loans
(b) Maintaining records of an individual’s payments pertaining to credit cards
(c) Creating Credit Information Reports
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true
S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. Credit Information Companies collects and maintains records of an individual‘s payments pertaining to loans and credit cards. These records are submitted to Credit Information Companies by banks and other lenders, on a monthly basis. This information is then used to create Credit Information Reports (CIR) and credit scores which are provided to lenders in order to help evaluate and approve loan applications.
Q3. By which rate is the domestic current rate of currency converted into foreign currency?
(a) Bank Rate
(b) CRR
(c) Stock Exchange Rate
(d) Repo Rate
(e) Exchange Rate
S3. Ans.(e)
Sol. An exchange rate- Between two currencies is the rate at which one currency will be exchanged for another. It is also regarded as the value of one country’s currency in terms of another currency.
Q4. The Foreign Exchange of India is kept with _________
(a) SBI
(b) ECGC
(c) RBI
(d) NABARD
(e) SEBI
S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. Reserve Bank of India accumulates foreign currency reserves by purchasing from authorized dealers in open market operations. Foreign exchange reserves of India act as a cushion against rupee volatility once global interest rates starts rising. The Foreign exchange reserves of India consists of below four categories. (a) Foreign Currency Assets
(b) Gold (c) SDRs (d) Reserve Tranche Position in the IMF.
Q5. Fiscal policy is concerned with which of the following?
(a) Public Revenue and Expenditure
(b) Issue of Currency
(c) Export Import
(d) Population Control
(e) Education for all
S5. Ans.(a)
Sol. Fiscal policy is the policy relating to government revenues from taxes and expenditure on various projects. Monetary Policy, on the other hand, is mainly concerned with the flow of money in the economy.
Q6. In which of the following types of banking, there is a direct execution of the transaction between a bank and its consumers?
(a) Retail Banking
(b) Universal Banking
(c) Virtual Banking
(d) Unit Banking
(e) None of the given options is true
S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Retail banking also known as Consumer Banking is the provision of services by a bank to individual consumers, rather than to companies, corporations or other banks. Services offered include savings and transactional accounts, mortgages, personal loans, debit cards, and credit cards.
Q7. Maximum loan amount to individuals against physical security shares can be _____
(a) 20 lakh
(b) 15 lakh
(c) 25 lakh
(d) 50 lakh
(e) 10 lakh
S7. Ans.(e)
Sol. Loans/ advances granted to individuals against the security of shares, debentures and PSU bonds should not exceed Rs.10 lakh and Rs.20 lakh, if the securities are held in physical form and dematerialized form respectively.
Q8. The process by which the central bank of a country controls the supply of money in the economy by exercising its control over interest rates in order to maintain price stability and achieve high economic growth is known as:
(a) Economic Policy
(b) Monetary Policy
(c) Fiscal Policy
(d) Credit Policy
(e) Budgetary Policy
S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. Monetary Policy is the process by which monetary authority of a country, generally a central bank controls the supply of money in the economy by exercising its control over interest rates in order to maintain price stability and achieve high economic growth. In India, the central monetary authority is the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). is so designed as to maintain the price stability in the economy.
Q9. Loans granted by a bank to an exporter popularly known as ‘Export credit’ is guaranteed, in case of default, by which of the following-
(a) EXIM Bank
(b) Ministry of International Trade, GOA
(c) ECGC
(d) DICGC
(e) None of the given options is true
S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. ECGC Limited (Formerly Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd) is a company wholly owned by the Government of India based in Mumbai, Maharashtra. It provides export credit insurance support to Indian exporters and is controlled by the Ministry of Commerce.
Q10. Who amongst the following is the regulator in the financial system of the country?
(a) OIC
(b) SEBI
(c) CRISIL
(d) TRAN
(e) CERC
S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. The financial system in India is regulated by independent regulators in the field of banking, insurance, capital market, commodities market, and pension funds. Example of Financial Regulators: RBI, IRDAI, SEBI, PFRDA.
Q11. Which of the following is the negotiable instrument?
(a) Fixed Deposit of a Bank
(b) Share certificate issued by a PSU
(c) Demand Draft issued by a bank
(d) Debenture of a company
(e) Airway Receipt
S11. Ans.(c)
Sol. A demand draft is a negotiable instrument similar to a bill of exchange. A bank issues a demand draft to a client (drawer), directing another bank (drawee) or one of its own branches to pay a certain sum to the specified party (payee).
Q12. Bank Holidays are covered by which of the following?
(a) As per the order of the GOI
(b) As per the order of the IBA
(c) Negotiable Instruments Act
(d) RBI Act
(e) None of the given options is true
S12. Ans.(c)
Sol. Bank Holidays are declared by Central/State Governments/Union Territory under the Negotiable Instruments (NI) Act, 1881.
Q13. A non-performing Asset in Banking Business means-
(a) A fixed asset of Bank is not been utilised
(b) A portion of deposits not been utilised
(c) A loan asset on which interest and/or instalments not paid
(d) All of the Above
(e) None of the given options is true
S13. Ans.(c)
Sol. A Non-performing asset (NPA) refers to a classification for loans on the books of financial institutions that are in default or are in arrears on scheduled payments of principal or interest. In most cases, debt is classified as nonperforming when loan payments have not been made for a period of 90 days.
Q14. Alterations, if any, on cheques are required to be authenticated by the signature of-
(a) Payee
(b) Depositor
(c) Drawer
(d) Endorse
(e) All of the above
S14. Ans.(c)
Sol. Alterations, if any, on cheques are required to be authenticated by the drawer’s signature against each such alteration.
Q15. What is the purpose of KYC in banking?
(a) It is used for customer identification
(b) It is used for increasing the CRR of banks
(c) It is used for money laundering
(d) It is used by the central bank to control liquidity
(e) Both (a) and (c)

S15. Ans.(e)
Sol. Know your customer (KYC) is the process of a business verifying the identity of its clients. Know your customer policies are becoming much more important globally to prevent identity theft, financial fraud, money laundering and terrorist financing.