Sunday, 16 July 2017

New Pattern English


Directions (1-9): In the following paragraph questions, four sentences have been given, out of these four sentences one sentence is out of the context of the paragraph. Find out the Irrelevant Sentences and mark it as your correct answer.

Q1. (1) The MOEF projects itself as a professional ministry where executive decision making with regard to environmental clearances is exercised.
(2) The Ministry of Environment and Forests has brought back the quota licensing regime.
(3) Projects have to be cleared or refused on the basis of an objective criteria and not ministerial discretions.
(4) It is time heads of government took it upon themselves to establish in effective grievances redressal system.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) All sentences are relevant.

Q2. (1) Even London’s latest pet project – proving that Russia cannot host an Olympics as successfully as Beijing or London – could easily backfire.
(2) For more than two decades, August has been the most cruel month for Russian leaders.
(3) The August 1991 coup led to the departure of President Mikhail Gorbachev and the end of the Soviet Union.
(4) The August 1998 debt default and ruble collapse laid waste to President Boris Yeltsin’s free-market reforms and resulted in the sacking of his prime minister, Sergei Kiriyenko.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) All sentences are relevant.

Q3. (1) Commercial use of drones is banned by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA), although it makes some exceptions such as for hobbyists’ flights in unpopulated areas where the aircraft stays in sight of a human operator.
(2) These sites will help the FAA understand how to integrate UAS into American airspace, which Congress has told it to do by September 2015.
(3) It is believed that Amazon’s new project will pose a new challenge to the FAA operations.
(4) But the skies are opening up: by the end of December the FAA will select six UAS testing sites from a list of 25 applicants in 24 states.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) All sentences are relevant.

Q4. (1) The Assad regime depends on its patrons in Iran and the Iranian-backed Hezbollahmilitia in neighbouring Lebanon.
(2) The Sunni-led oppositions is similarly turning to its regional patrons.
(3) These regional players, with their own agendas, will keep pulling Syria apart until a functioning national government can be re-established.
(4) Syrian society is considered fractured and dissonant.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) All sentences are relevant.

Q5. (1) It has become something of a cliché to predict that Asia will dominate the twenty-first century.
(2) It is a safe prediction, given that Asia is already home to nearly 60% of the world’s population and accounts for roughly 25% of global economic output.
(3) Asia is also the region where many of this century’s most influential countries – including China, India, Japan, Russia, South Korea, Indonesia, and the United States – interact.
(4) These developments both reflect and reinforce heightened nationalism throughout the region.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) All sentences are relevant.

Q6. (1) This indicates a deep lack of concern for citizens on the part of the administrators.
(2) Before this year will have ended, the French parliament will have enacted a comprehensive pension overhaul, which is essential not only to putting France’s public finances on a sound and sustainable footing, but also to shoring up confidence in the Eurozone in 2014 and beyond.
(3) This effort has gained broad public acceptance because it was fair: both retirees and working people will contribute, as will companies and households.
(4) For the first time, pension reform has been carried out in France in continuous consultation with employers’ associations and trade unions.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) All sentences are relevant.

Q7. (1) The concept of “sustainable harmony” can be promoted by publishing indices of personal well-being and environmental preservation, alongside standard GDP data.
(2) The desire to help others without consideration for ourselves is not just a noble ideal.
(3) Selflessness raises the quality and elevates the meaning of our lives, and that of our descendants; in fact, our very survival may even depend on it.
(4) Studies have shown that individuals and societies can learn to be more altruistic.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) All sentences are relevant.

Q8. (1) The problem with charities is that they have little incentive to become more efficient.
(2) Yet the real value is in training people to deliver for themselves, at a local scale – empowered rather than controlled, creative rather than rehearsed, and working by choice rather than in desperation.
(3) There is no simple way to monitor the quality and efficiency of a charity – especially one devoted to long-term changes (that is, investments) rather than daily delivery of services.
(4) Since starting my own non-profit organization, I look at other nonprofits with new eyes.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) All sentences are relevant.

Q9. (1) Nowadays, many people seem to be more relaxed than ever about nationality, with the Internet enabling them to forge close connections with distant cultures and people.
(2) But states remain extremely sensitive about their borders’ inviolability.
(3) A great game is beginning among Asia’s great powers, and there are scant rules in place to manage how it will be played.
(4) After all, territory – including land, oceans, air space, rivers, and seabeds – is central to a country’s identity, and shapes its security and foreign policy.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) All sentences are relevant.

Directions (10): In each question, there are five sentences or parts of sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that is/are correct in terms of grammar and usage (including spelling, punctuation and logical consistency). Then, choose the most appropriate option.


Q10. A. Maragadavalli was running her father’s household ever since her mother had died when she was 13.
B. It took a long time for her family to settle down after that, and she was 26 by the time she had got married.
C. With 13 years of running a household under her belt, she married into a family meticulously run by mother-in-law.
D. She liked the fact that there were servant maids to help with the housework.
E. She had very less to do around the house except cut vegetable and wait for her husband to come back from work.
(a) A only
(b) A and D
(c) A and E
(d) D only
(e) A, C and E

Directions (11-15): In the following, there are sentences or parts of sentence labelled A, B, C, D and E. Choose for your answer the fragment that carries an Error. Ignore punctuation error, if any.

Q11. A. And its equally important to spread the news about companies that treat working parents
B. with fairness and respect, so that we all can try to work at these companies,
C. and send a message to others treating working parents
D. justly is a valuable employee recruitment and retention advantage.
E. No error
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q12. A. I’ve been in Delhi for four days now
B. and so far the stay had been uneventful,
C. barring a stray incident
D. where I walked into a lamppost and then walked around Connaught Place
E. with a bloody nose.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q13. A. To be a citizen is to possess the rights
B. enshrined in our constitution,
C. and equally, the obligation of duty.
D. When one citizen upholds an individual right for another,
E. he enacts his duty to himself.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q14. A. This study takes its place alongside earlier research showing
B. that kids who are allowed to serve their own food
C. take smaller portions that they would typically be served
D. and ate 25 percentage less, and that kids tend to eat more
E. when the portions on their plates have been double.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q15. A. Sixty years is too small a period to acquire new civilizational traits.
B. and to mould our DNA. When that happens, we will automatically
C. realize the importance of the rule of law, the true meaning of freedom and democracy
D. and then we will behave like citizens who will not allow anyone
E. to sell their votes, and MPs will not be on sold.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E



Solutions

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. The fourth sentence talks of grievance redressal mechanisms, whereas the rest of the sentences refer to the decision-making process of the government, with special reference to quota licensing. Thus option (d) is the irrelevant sentence.

S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. Sentence-A addresses London’s attempt at proving that Russia cannot host the Olympics. This is unlike the other three sentences that make direct references to the bad luck that the month of August brings to Russia in particular. Thus sentence (a) is irrelevant to the rest of the passage.

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Option (c) is the answer as it speaks of Amazon, which is unaddressed in the other three sentences that deal with the operations of the FAA in the American airspace. Thus (c) is the irrelevant sentence.

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. While options (a), (b) and (c) describe the political regime in Syria, option (d) makes a remark about Syrian society, which is not in line with the theme followed by the rest of the sentences. Thus, it is the irrelevant sentence.

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. First, option (d) is unspecific in the region it speaks of. Second, it brings up nationalism which has no continuity with the rest of the sentences’ ideas. Thus, it is the irrelevant sentence.

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Option (a) directly contrasts what has been said in the other options, which is appreciative and laudatory of the French parliament’s efforts at implementing a comprehensive pension overhaul. Thus, it is irrelevant in the given context.

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. While option (a) does seem connected to the rest of the sentences, it is still the most irrelevant from among the options present. It is an extension of the concept of altruism in discussion in the question, in that it discusses ‘sustainable harmony’. Options (b), (c) and (d) hover around the same premise and thus constitute a consistent thought.

S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. Option (b) is the answer because it diverges into a different direction from the one author takes in the other three sentences in his/her assessment of charities. It does not express an idea similar to these other sentences. It is thus the irrelevant sentence.

S9. Ans.(c)
Sol. Option (a), (b) and (d) talk of interconnectedness and territorial concerns of countries across the world, in a broad way.  There is no specific mention of any particular region or country. The mention of Asia’s power games and focus on it is what makes option C the irrelevant sentence.

S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. D only. A has a tense error – when since is used as conjunction to show the time the perfect tense is a must. The sentence should read “Maragadavalli had been running her father’s household ever since …”. Also there is ambiguity in “ … mother had died when she was 13.” B also has a tense error. “By the time she got married” rather than “she had got married” – the unnecessary shift in tense makes the sentence meaningless. E is incorrect. The intensifier ‘very’ is used incorrectly with the comparative less, it should read very little rather than very less.

S11. Ans.(a)
Sol. It’s should be used instead of its in the first part of the sentence.

S12. Ans.(d)
Sol. D should read as ‘in which I walked into …’ or ‘when I walked into …’

S13. Ans.(d)
Sol. the preposition ‘for’ should be corrected to ‘of’ – ‘right of another’, rather than ‘right for another’

S14. Ans.(d)
Sol. 25 percentage less is erroneous – 25 percent less is correct usage. Use the word “percent” with number; use “percentage” without using a number.
For example: 50 percent children, and a considerable percentage of children.

S15. Ans.(e)
Sol. We will not allow anyone to sell their votes has a problem in pronoun agreement, anyone is singular hence he or she should be used rather than the plural their. Sixty years as period is singular, hence the singular verb is correct.

Banking Awareness


Q1. Who has been appointed as the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of IDFC Bank with effect from July 16th 2017 for three years?
(a) Sunil Mehta
(b) Melwyn Rego
(c) Rajkiran Rai G
(d) Sunil Kakar
(e) Vikram Limaye

S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. IDFC Ltd announced the elevation of its CFO Sunil Kakar as the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of the company with effect from July 16th 2017 for three years. Mr. Kakar has also been appointed as additional director. Both the appointments are subject to shareholders' approval at the annual general meeting (AGM). Besides, the company announced that the Board has approved the resignation of veteran banker Vikram Limaye from the post of MD and CEO who is set to join leading stock exchange NSE as its new Managing Director and CEO.

Q2. As per the amendment, the pecuniary jurisdiction of the Banking Ombudsman to pass an award has been doubled to _____ rupees. 
(a) 20 lakh rupees
(b) 10 lakh rupees
(c) 25 lakh rupees
(d) 50 lakh rupees
(e) 5 lakh rupees

S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. The central bank has extended the scope of Banking Ombudsman Scheme. As per RBI, under the amended scheme, a customer would also be able to lodge a complaint against the bank for its non-adherence to RBI instructions with regard to mobile banking/ electronic banking services in India. As per the amendment, the pecuniary jurisdiction of the Banking Ombudsman to pass an award has been doubled to 20 lakh rupees. The Reserve Bank extended the scope of Banking Ombudsman Scheme under which banks could be penalized for mis-selling third-party products like insurance and mutual funds via mobile or electronic banking.

Q3. Capital markets regulator SEBI has relaxed takeover norms for the acquisition of stressed assets of listed companies to help the government and the RBI in their efforts to tackle bad loans. What is the meaning of "B" in SEBI?
(a) Base
(b) Business
(c) Broker
(d) Bank
(e) Board

S3. Ans.(e)

Sol. Capital markets regulator, SEBI (Securities Exchange Board of India) relaxed takeover norms for the acquisition of stressed assets of listed companies to help the government and the RBI in their efforts to tackle bad loans. SEBI Chairman Ajay Tyagi took the decision after a board meeting in Mumbai.

Q4. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) has approved USD 150 million equity investment loan to the India Infrastructure Fund. It is the bank's first such loan to fund private projects. AIIB based in-?
(a) France
(b) Australia
(c) China
(d) Germany
(e) USA

S4. Ans.(c)
Sol. China-led Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) has approved USD 150 million equity investment loan to the India Infrastructure Fund. It is the bank's first such loan to fund private projects.

Q5. World Bank's Board of Executive Directors has approved a loan assistance of __________ million dollars for the Assam State Public Finance Institutional Reforms (ASPIRe) Project.
(a) 103 million dollars
(b) 44 million dollars
(c) 502 million dollars
(d) 328 million dollars
(e) 1005 million dollars

S5. Ans.(b)

Sol. World Bank's Board of Executive Directors has approved a loan assistance of 44 million dollars for the Assam State Public Finance Institutional Reforms (ASPIRe) Project. The loan was sanction by World Bank (International Bank for Reconstruction and Development) in its meeting held at Washington DC, USA.

Q6. Which among the following countries has contributed $100,000 to a UN fund to help developing countries actively participate in the discussion of tax issues, becoming the first country to make the contribution?
(a) India
(b) UK
(c) Austria
(d) Canada
(e) China

S6. Ans.(a)

Sol. India has contributed $100,000 to a UN fund to help developing countries actively participate in the discussion of tax issues, becoming the first country to make the contribution. The UN Tax Trust Fund aims to support the work of the Committee of Experts on International Cooperation in Tax Matters.


Q7. Which bank has started insolvency resolution process against Lanco Infratech Ltd. following a directive from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), while this is the first resolution process initiated by the lenders against 12 large borrowers identified by the RBI recently?
(a) State Bank of India
(b) IDBI Bank
(c) Punjab National Bank
(d) Bank of India
(e) ICICI Bank

S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. IDBI Bank has started insolvency resolution process against Lanco Infratech Ltd. following a directive from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), While this is the first resolution process initiated by the lenders against 12 large borrowers identified by the RBI recently.

Q8. Stepping up its fight against tax evasion, the Centre has made it mandatory to quote the Aadhaar number for opening bank accounts and for transactions exceeding-
(a) Rs.10,000
(b) Rs.80,000
(c) Rs.50,000
(d) Rs.1,00,000
(e) Rs.1,50,000

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol. Stepping up its fight against tax evasion, the Centre has made it mandatory to quote the Aadhaar number for opening bank accounts and for transactions exceeding Rs.50,000. With the amendments to the Prevention of Money Laundering (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005 notified earlier this month, banks will have to demand both Aadhaar and the Permanent Account Number (PAN) for verification of identity.

Q9. The Reserve Bank of India has initiated PCA on Bank of Maharashtra placing a restriction on the banking activities. What is the meaning of "A" in PCA?
(a) Against
(b) Assets
(c) Association
(d) Action
(e) Agency

S9. Ans.(d)

Sol. The Reserve Bank of India has initiated prompt corrective action (PCA) on Bank of Maharashtra placing a restriction on the banking activities. This RBI has said that the action is taken on the bank in view of the high level of bad loans. This is the sixth bank to be placed under PCA by the RBI and of this five banks were placed under PCA in the last three months. RBI has initiated PCA on Central Bank of India, IDBI Bank, UCO Bank, Dena Bank and Indian Overseas Bank.

Q10. Which among the following international organisation has cleared a USD 250-million loan for making Indian youth more employable through reskilling, in a move that is seen to aid the Skill India Mission?
(a) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(b) World Trade Organization (WTO)
(c) Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
(d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(e) World Bank (WB)

S10. Ans.(e)
Sol. The World Bank has cleared a USD 250-million loan for making Indian youth more employable through reskilling, in a move that is seen to aid the Skill India Mission. The multi-lateral lender is keen to support the Indian government in its efforts to better equip the young workforce with employable skills. Under the program, adults in 15-59 years of age, underemployed or unemployed, will get the skill training.

Q11. Which among the following bank has partnered with mobile payments switch TerraPay to enable real-time money transfer to bank accounts in India?
(a) Kotak Mahindra Bank
(b) Axis Bank
(c) Yes Bank
(d) ICICI Bank
(e) HDFC Bank

S11. Ans.(c)
Sol. Private sector lender Yes Bank has partnered with mobile payments switch TerraPay to enable real-time money transfer to bank accounts in India. Powered by TerraPay’s global clearing and settlement service, the partnership will make it faster and convenient for consumers to send money to any bank account.

Q12. Meghalaya government has signed two MoUs with the __________ as a part of an initiative towards migrating government transactions to digital mode. 
(a) Bank of Maharashtra
(b) Indian Bank
(c) Bank of Baroda
(d) Punjab National Bank
(e) State Bank of India

S12. Ans.(e)
Sol. Meghalaya government has signed two MoUs with the State Bank of India as a part of an initiative towards migrating government transactions to digital mode. With the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax(GST), these MoUs are expected to give dealers and other citizens the desired platform for conducting financial transactions with the state government on a digital platform.

Q13. An agreement for _________ Credit of USD 35 Million from World Bank for “Assam State Public Financial Institutional Reforms Project” was signed in New Delhi.
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
(b) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)
(c) International Finance Corporation (IFC)
(d) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
(e) International Development Association (IDA)

S13. Ans.(a)
Sol. An agreement for IBRD Credit of USD 35 Million from World Bank for “Assam State Public Financial Institutional Reforms Project” was signed in New Delhi. The agreement was signed by Shri Raj Kumar, Joint Secretary (MI), Department of Economic Affairs on behalf of the Government of India and Mr. John Blomquist, Acting Country Director, World Bank (India) on behalf of the World Bank.

Q14. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has taken over the administration of Sahara India Life Insurance, a first of its kind move in the insurance sector. Sahara India Life Insurance based in-
(a) Jaipur
(b) Lucknow
(c) Patna
(d) Shimla
(e) New Delhi

S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has taken over the administration of Sahara India Life Insurance, a first of its kind move in the insurance sector. The administrator will act as per the powers and duties and applicable provisions. R.K. Sharma, general manager, IRDA has been appointed as the administrator with “immediate effect” to manage Sahara India Life Insurance Company. Lucknow-based Sahara India Life Insurance was the first wholly Indian owned life insurance company in the private sector.

Q15. The proposed merger between Aadhar Housing Finance and DHFL Vysya Housing Finance has hit the final lap with it got the nod from housing finance regulator National Housing Bank (NHB). NHB was set up on-
(a) 09th July 1982
(b) 09th July 1992
(c) 09th July 1999
(d) 09th July 1988
(e) 09th July 1956

S15. Ans.(d)
Sol. The proposed merger between Aadhar Housing Finance and DHFL Vysya Housing Finance has hit the final lap with it got the nod from housing finance regulator National Housing Bank (NHB). Aadhar Housing Finance Chief Executive Officer Deo Shankar Tripathi stated that it had applied to National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) for the next stage approval. NHB was set up on July 9, 1988 under the National Housing Bank Act, 1987.

QUIZ-16


Q1. With which of the following country, India has recently started a 14-day joint military training exercise in Himachal Pradesh?
(a) Oman
(b) Australia
(c) Nigeria
(d) Thailand
(e) Israel
S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. A 14-day joint military training exercise between India and Thailand started in Himachal Pradesh. The joint exercise of the Indian Army with the Royal Thailand Army commenced at Bakloh in Chamba district.

Q2. An international body which focuses on climate policies has ranked TERI among the top think tanks in the world. What does 'R' stands for in TERI?
(a) Reprise
(b) Resources
(c) Recommended
(d) Reformation
(e) Report
S2. Ans.(b)
Sol. An international body which focuses on climate policies has ranked The Energy Resources Institute (TERI) among the top think tanks in the world. TERI was ranked number two by the International Center for Climate Governance (ICCG).
Q3. Who is the present Director General of TERI?
(a) Vijay Kumar
(b) Anand Mehta
(c) Ajay Mathur
(d) Sandeep Mahesh
(e) Aditya Kumar

S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. Ajay Mathur is Director General of TERI - The Energy & Resources Institute, and a member of the Prime Minister's Council on Climate Change.
Q4. Name the Himachal Pradesh director general of police (DGP) who has been recently appointed as the new chief of the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF).
(a) Kumar Sehgal
(b) Sanjay Kumar
(c) Sameer Malhotra
(d) Sanjay Dubey
(e) Hemant Karmakar
S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. Himachal Pradesh director general of police (DGP) Sanjay Kumar has been appointed as the new chief of the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF).
Q5. National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is headquartered in _____________.
(a) Jaipur
(b) Mumbai
(c) New Delhi
(d) Kolkata
(e) Chennai
S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. NDRF was formed in 2006. It is headquartered in New Delhi.
Q6. The Karnataka government has launched the scheme named _____________ to identify and nurture innovative start-ups.
(a) Start-up with us
(b) Start-up-50
(c) Start with us
(d) Elevated-50
(e) Elevate 100
S6. Ans.(e)
Sol. The Karnataka government has launched the ‘Elevate 100’ scheme to identify and nurture innovative start-ups. The aim is to identify 100 most innovative start-ups in the state to elevate them to the next level of success.
Q7. Name the new fast-growing Israeli flower that has been recently named after Prime Minister NarendraModi, in a special gesture to mark the first visit of an Indian Premier to the Jewish nation.
(a) Crysanthumun
(b) Amaryllis
(c) Callistemon
(d) Ranunculus
(e) Sakura
S7. Ans.(a)
Sol. A new fast-growing Israeli flower was today named after Prime Minister NarendraModi, in a special gesture to mark the first visit of an Indian premier to the Jewish nation. Israeli Crysanthumun flower will now be called “MODI”.

Q8. Who was the counterpart of PM Modi on the visit of PM to Israel?
(a) Ehud Olmert
(b) Ariel Sharon
(c) Benjamin Netanyahu
(d) Ehud Barak
(e) Shimon Peres
S8. Ans.(c)

Sol. Benjamin Netanyahu is the PM of Israel. The Capital of Israel is Jerusalem.
Q9. The United Forum of Bank Unions has decided to observe ____________ as ‘Save public sector banks’ day.
(a) 15 July
(b) 19 July
(c) 10 July
(d) 6 July
(e) 12 July
S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. The United Forum of Bank Unions has decided to observe July 19, the 48th anniversary of nationalization of major banks, as ‘Save public sector banks’ day.
Q10. Prayut Chan-o-cha is the present Prime Minister of which country?
(a) South Korea
(b) Japan
(c) Thailand
(d) Indonesia
(e) Oman

S10. Ans.(c)
Sol. Prayut Chan-o-cha is the present Prime Minister of Thailand. Bangkok is the capital of Thailand.
Its currency is Thai baht.

Saturday, 15 July 2017

Daily GK Update 15th July 2017


1. Railways launches India's first solar-powered DEMU train

i. Indian Railways launched its first 1,600 HP solar powered Diesel Electric Multiple Unit (DEMU) train with a unique facility of Battery Bank from Safdarjung station, New Delhi.
ii. A solar power DEMU train with six trailer coaches will save about 21,000 Litres of Diesel and thereby bring cost saving of Rs.12 Lac every year. 

Important Takeaways from Above News-
  • Suresh Prabhakar Prabhu is the current railway minister of India.
  • The DEMU train has been manufactured by Integral Coach Factory, Chennai.

2. World Youth Skills Day: 15 July

i. World Youth Skills Day is being observed globally on 15th July. The objective of the day is to raise awareness about the importance of investing in youth skills development.
ii. The theme of this year is "Skills for the Future of Work".

Important Takeaways from Above News-
  • The first World Youth Skills Day (WYSD) was celebrated on 15 July 2015.

3. Railways launches mobile app that does more than just booking

i. Indian Railways launched an integrated mobile application to cater to various passenger requirements over and above ticket booking. The new app will include inquiry, on-board cleaning and ordering meal on a single platform. The app is called Rail SAARTHI and was launched by Railway Minister. 
ii. The Rail SAARTHI (synergised advanced application rail travel help and information) such as safety for women, complaint facility and suggestion for improvement. One can also book air ticket through the app and give feedback.

Important Takeaways from Above News-
  • Suresh Prabhakar Prabhu is the current railway minister of India.

4. Raipur Airport Ranked First in Customer Satisfaction Index Survey

i. Raipur’s Swami Vivekananda Airport was ranked first in Customer Satisfaction among 49 airports in the country.
ii. Raipur Airport achieved 4.84 score on a five point scale index in the latest CSI (Customer Service Index) survey conducted by an independent agency for the period of January-June 2017, followed by Udaipur, Amritsar and Dehradun airports which have scored 4.75, 4.74 and 4.73 respectively.

Important Takeaways from Above News-
  • Airports Authority of India (AAI) was constituted by an Act of Parliament and came into being on 1st April 1995.
  • Dr. Guruprasad Mohapatra is the Chairman of AAI.

5. India ranks 116 out of 157 nations on SDG index

i. India is ranked 116 out of 157 nations on a global index that assesses the performance of countries towards achieving the ambitious sustainable development goals (SDGs). The SDG Index and Dashboards Report produced by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) and the Bertelsmann Stiftung.
ii. India is ranked 116th on the index with a score of 58.1, behind countries such as Nepal, Iran, Sri Lanka, Bhutan and China.
iii. Pakistan is ranked 122. Sweden leads the list, followed by Denmark and Finland.

Important Takeaways from Above News-
  • The UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) has been operating since 2012 under the auspices of the UN Secretary-General.
  • SDGs were adopted in September 2015 at the UN Sustainable Development Summit in New York, US.

6. Mukesh Kumar Jain appointed MD & CEO of Oriental Bank

i. The Centre has appointed Mukesh Kumar Jain as Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of Oriental Bank of Commerce, a public sector bank.
ii. His appointment is for a period of three years. Prior to this appointment, Jain was an Executive Director at Punjab & Sind Bank.

Important Takeaways from Above News-
  •  Mukesh Kumar Jain replaces Animesh Chauhan.
  • Headquarter of OBC is in Gurugram, Haryana.

7. Sundar Singh wins gold at World Para Athletics Championships 

i. India's Sundar Singh Gurjar has won gold on the opening night of 2017 World Para Athletics Championships in London. He triumphed in the men's javelin throw with a personal best of 60.36 meters.
ii. Sri Lanka’s Dinesh Priyantha Herath came second with 57.93 meters while defending champion Guo Chunliang of China was third with a season’s best 56.14 meters.

Important Takeaways from Above News-
  • World Para Athletics Championships 2013 was held in Doha, Qatar.

Quant Quiz


Quant Quiz

Directions—(Q. 1–5) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it. 

Out of the 45,000 candidates eligible for an Officer’s Post in a Public Sector Bank, 1350 candidates have prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks in rural areas only. One-fourth of the total number of candidates has prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks in urban areas only. 12% of the total number of candidates has prior experience of working in Private Sector Banks in urban areas only. 2% of the total number of candidates has prior experience of working in Private Sector Banks in rural areas only. 10800 candidates have worked in Public Sector Banks in both urban and rural areas. 15% of the total number of candidates has worked in both Public and Private Sector Banks in urban areas only. 1800 candidates have worked in both Public and Private Sector Banks in rural areas only. The remaining candidates have no prior experience of working in the Banking industry.


1. How many candidates have prior experience of working in rural areas (both Public Sector and Private Sector Banks together) ?
(1) 13050  
(2) 14,850
(3) 14400 
(4) 14700
(5) 14550

2. How many total candidates have prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks (Urban and Rural areas together) ?
(1) 37,350 
(2) 25200
(3) 30150
(4) 31950
(5) None of these

3. What is the respective ratio of the candidates who have a prior experience of working in Public Sector banks in rural areas only to the candidates who have a prior experience of working in Private sector banks in rural areas only?
(1) 4 : 3 
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 3 
(4) 3 : 4
(5) None of these

4. What is the total number of candidates who have worked in Private Sector Banks in urban areas ?
(1) 3600 
(2) 6750
(3) 12150
(4) 10800
(5) None of these

5. The candidates who have no prior experience of working in the banking industry are what per cent of the candidates who have worked in Public Sector banks in both urban and rural areas ?
(1) 60•5
(2) 63•5
(3) 62.5
(4) 64
(5) None of these

Directions—(6–10) Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below it 
The table gives the percentage of marks scored by six students in different subjects. The total marks in each subject is also given with the subject.



6. What is approximate overall percentage obtained by Charu in the examination ?
(1) 78 
(2) 69
(3) 75 
(4) 71
(5) 65

7. What is the difference in the marks obtained by Dheeraj in English and the marks obtained by Manoj in the same subjects ?
(1) 12 
(2) 6.5
(3) 10 
(4) 8
(5) None of these

8. The marks obtained by Ankur in Geography are approximately what per cent of the marks as it is obtained by Kalpana in Hindi ?
(1) 45
(2) 33
(3) 50
(4) 60
(5) None of these

9. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by Kalpana in History and Geography together ?
(1) 73•40
(2) 72•80
(3) 70•50
(4) 68•80
(5) None of these

10. What is the average marks obtained by all the students together in Science ?
(1) 79•5 
(2) 120•50
(3) 118
(4) 121
(5) None of these


Solutions (1-5)

Total Candidates = 45000
With Work Experience = 38250
Without Work Experience = 45000 – 38250 = 6750

1. (2)
Required number of candidates = 10800 + 4050 = 14850

2. (4)
Required number of candidates = 23400 + 8550 = 31950

3. (2)
Required ratio = 1350 : 900 = 3 : 2.


4. (3) Required number of candidates = 5400 + 6750 = 12150.

5. (3) Required percentage = 6750/10800 * 100 = 62.5


Solutions (6-10)
6. (2)
Total marks of Charu = 72% of 100 + 60% of 100 + 68% of 150 + 74% of 60 + 68% of 150 + 75% of 40
= 72 + 60 + 102 + 44.4 + 102 + 30 = 410.4
Percentage of marks = 410.4/600 * 100 = 69 approx

7. (3
Required difference = (85 – 75) = 10

8. (2)
Required percentage = 55% of 40/66% of 100 * 100 = 33.33%

9. (2)
Required percentage = (80% of 60 + 62% of 40)/ (60 + 40) * 100 = 72.8

10. (5)
Average marks of all students in science = (82 + 85 + 72 + 80 + 68 + 90)/6 * 150/100 = 119.25

Profit & Loss


Quant Handy Concepts and Tricks: Profit & Loss


Profit & Loss

Profit and loss are the terms related to monetary transactions in trade and business. Whenever a purchased article is sold, then either profit is earned or loss is incurred.

Cost Price (CP) :This is the price at which an article is purchased or manufactured.
Selling Price (SP): This is the price at which an article is sold.

Profit (SP>CP) :When an article is sold at a price more than its cost price, then profit is earned.
Loss (CP>SP) :When an article is sold at a price lower than its cost price, then loss in incurred.


Note : Profit and loss always calculated on cost price.


Some Important Concept

1. If a person sells two similar articles, one at a gain of a% and another at a loss of a%, then the seller always incurrs a loss which is given by

Loss%=(a/10)^2 %

2. If a'th part of some items is sold at x% loss, then required gain per cent in selling rest of the items in order that there is neither gain nor loss in whole transaction, is (ax)/(1-a)%

Example 1: A medical store owner purchased medicines worth Rs. 6000 form a company. He sold 1/3 part of the medicine at 30% loss. On which gain he should sell his rest of the medicines, so that he has neither gain or loss?

Here a = 1/3 , x = 30 % 
Required gain % = (1/3*30)/(1-1/3) = 15 % 

3. If cost price of 'a' articles is equal to the selling price of 'b' articles, then profit percentage 
=(a-b)*100/b

4. If a dishonest trader professes to sell his items at CP but uses false weight, then 

Gain %=Error*100/(True Value-Error)
Gain%=(True weight-False weight)/(False weight) X100%

Example 2: A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price but he uses a weight of 930 g for 1 kg weight. Find his gain per cent.
Gain % = 70*100/930

5.If a shopkeeper sells his goods at a% loss on cost price but uses b g instead of c g, then his profit or loss is [(100-a)(c/b)-100]% as sign positive or negative

Example 3:A dealer sells goods at 6% loss on cost price but uses  14 g instead of 16 g. What is his percentage profit or loss?

Here a = 6 % , b = 14 g and c = 16 g 

Required answer = [(100-6)(16/14)-100]% = 7(3/7) %

6. If a dealer sells his goods at a% profit on cost price and uses b% less weight, then his percentage profit  will be 
(b+a)/(100-b)X100%

Example 4: A dealer sells his goods at 20% loss on cost price but uses 40% less weight. What is his percentage profit  or loss?

Here a = 20 , b = 40
Required answer = (40 -20)*100/(100- 40) = 33(1/3) %

7. If 'a' part of an article is sold at x% profit/loss, 'b' part at y% profit/loss and c part at z%  profit/loss and finally there is a profit/lossof Rs.R, then Cost price of entire article
=RS.(R*100)/(ax+by+cz) 

Example 5: If 2/3 part of an article is sold at 30% profit, 1/4 part at 16% profit and remaining part at 12% profit and finally, there is a profit of Rs.75, then find the cost price of the article.

Here a = 2/3 , x = 30 % , b =1/4 , y = 16 % , z = 12 % and R = 75 Rs

Required CP of article = (75*100)/(2/3*30+1/4*16+1/12*12)  = 7500/25 = 300